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To: Quix

Maybe it’s just me, or don’t you think that if Mary herself was immaculately conceived, Jesus Christ would have known this? And allowed that woman of the company, in Luke 11:27-28 to honor and worship her?


2,452 posted on 07/26/2010 8:46:15 PM PDT by small voice in the wilderness (Defending the Indefensible. The Pride of a Pawn.)
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To: small voice in the wilderness

OF COURSE.

But that sensible reasoning is rational and Biblical.

The RC’s seem to have little interest in either.


2,498 posted on 07/26/2010 9:29:12 PM PDT by Quix (THE PLAN of the Bosses: http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/religion/2519352/posts?page=2#2)
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To: small voice in the wilderness; Mad Dawg
I also wonder if Mary really had free-will so that she could have rejected the conception of the Christ - which it seems to me that is why she is revered so much, because she assented - then what would have happened to her "immaculate conception"? In other words, IF she had rejected God's request, would she have "lost" this singular grace and become a regular sinner like us all? Would her sinfulness have become retroactive?

MD - you get into the deep theological stuff, how do you see this conundrum?

2,550 posted on 07/26/2010 10:11:32 PM PDT by boatbums (God is ready to assume full responsibility for the life wholly yielded to him.)
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