This implied, without explanation or justification that the Ascension of Jesus was the same sort of thing as that of Enoch and Elijah. That, to me, is a new idea, which I won't take on just anybody's say-so. So I question the use of the word "rapture" for all three events.
Further, and this also is a question, is the notion of rapture all there is to dispensationalism? I think not. Therefore to refer to the antiquity of Enoch's being taken up does not in itself establish the antiquity of dispensationalism.
This may be "the same old tactics" but to me it just seems to be common sense.
Take your time in responding. The Ol' Mizris and I have a date.
Mad Dawg...Enoch’s carrying away, caught up, translated, raptured, whatever you want to call it, wasn’t about dispensationalism. Go back please and re-read the post. Enoch, Elijah, and Jesus Christ all left this earth bodily. I wasn’t talking about dispensation meanings with Enoch, I was MERELY trying to show you that the concept of being caught up, raptured, to heaven is NOT a new concept.
See also: Philippians 3:20,21; Colossians 3:4; 1 Thess. 4:13-18; Titus 2:13.
The question is not IF this is going to happen, but WHEN is it going to happen.
2 Thess. 2:1-14.