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To: Mad Dawg
Is salvation an instance of grace or not? How else does Paul say that he saves except being a dispenser , a conduit, of grace? Paul certainly does not think he is the source of salvation.

"If ye have heard of the Dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward: how that by revelation He made known unto me, the mystery...which in other ages was not made known unto the sons of men as it is now revealed unto His Holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit. That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body and partakers of His promise in Christ BY THE GOSPEL..and to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been HID IN GOD who created all things by Jesus Christ." (Eph. 3:2,3,5,6,9).

Tell me where Paul says he is the dispenser of grace? He was given by revelation from Christ a new dispensation program. The Dispensation of the Law has been set aside temporarily, and the Dispensation of the Grace of God is now how God is dealing with, or Dispensing, to His people.

The Dispensation of the Grace of God is exactly what it says above: "That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body and partakers of His promise in Christ BY THE GOSPEL"

The Word of God is divided dispensationally. God has dispensed different ways His people were to be managed. NOT different people who could dispense salvation to others. 2 Timothy 2:15 should make you understand that the Word of Truth must be rightly divided.

1,883 posted on 07/11/2010 7:33:32 AM PDT by small voice in the wilderness (Defending the Indefensible. The Pride of a Pawn.)
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To: small voice in the wilderness
Tell me where Paul says he is the dispenser of grace? Why, in the very first clause of the citation you offer!

"If ye have heard of the Dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward ...

I put this in my hurriedly gathered catalogue last night, but in the RSV, which has the advantage of being written in "English as she is spoke."

Bith in the RSV's use of steward and the (as I assume) KJV's "dispensation" (which, I hasten to point out was not set apart by a Majuscule Initial in the "authorities") the idea is clearly that Paul is given something to distribute.

The steward at the feast has charge of giving out the master's wine. If someone is given a dispensation, (especially, I would suggest, if his initial language is Aramaic or Hebrew with their strong emphasis of verbs) it is at least no LESS likely that he is given the job of dispensing and that he is given the thing already dispensed.

1,892 posted on 07/11/2010 8:02:24 AM PDT by Mad Dawg (O Maria, sine labe concepta, ora pro nobis qui ad te confugimus.)
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