His flaws are beyond my desire to expound on. Many have commented on the Gospel of John, and many of them find peculiar sequencing. Some even suggest he is telling a THEOLOGICAL story....gasp....rather than a CHRONOLOGICAL story.
That, however, only heightens the rationale behind Alamo’s insistence that “I am” is used by Jesus in John to call attention to His Divine nature.
But where in the Greek scriptures (not in doctrinally tainted translations) is "I am" used as a divine title? It is used about 1600-plus times in the NT alone to denote a subject and a predicate.
The one example she gives in the Garden of Gethesemane is obviously made up either by the interpolator or the author himself, for there would have been no reason to call for false witnesses to condemn Jesus.
Besides, John's Gospel already gives a whole bunch of information that contradicts other Gospel accounts, such as Jesus' alleged claim that he only taught publicly and never in secret (John 18:20), which is directly contradicted by Matthew 13;10-11, and so on.
Whoever had his hands in John's Gospel did try to associate the ego eimi with a divine title, but this is not supported by the rest of the Greek scriptures, just as John's claim in v. 18:20 does not correspond to Matthew's account in 13:10-11.
Some even suggest he is telling a THEOLOGICAL story....gasp....rather than a CHRONOLOGICAL story
Gasp? LOL. One can certainly make a valid case of it, for example, regarding the timing of the Last Supper that comes to mind.