who did Jesus say was “before” Abraham?
Is this a trick question? Himself, of course.
He is implying (in an odd grammatical way) that he was around before Moses using a simple present indicative (ἐγώ εἰμι, ego eimi) "I am."
But he is deifnitely not suggesting with that expression that he pre-existed the creation the way Septuagint does in Ex 3:14 ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν (ego eimi ho on) = "I am the existence."
Maybe that's not what the author of John wanted to convey, but that's what he wrote. The intent of John's Gospel is clearly an attempt to equate Jesus with the God of Israel. Unfortunately, the way he conveys that intent is not always what the author writes.