Biblegateway supports this as well see: http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Acts+4%3A37%2CActs+5%3A2&version=NASB
Do you see it translated as portion? (not by me, but by Biblegateway)
If it doesn't say remainder than it isn't the whole thing, but some portion of it. Furthermore, it makes no statement as to free will gifts.
e.g. I sell and gain $100, withholding $20 secretly for myself and report the total of $80 as my net gain. Now that $80 represents 100% of my reported gain on which I give some portion/share/certain part.
Here you could be right. It isn't an offering of $8 or 10%, a tithe, but $40, $25, $52. We don't know and the story doesn't say.
Restornu's and the Catholic author's contention that it is a tithe is also supported by a plain reading of the text in either English or the Greek. What cannot be said is that it is not a tithe or 10%. Let's not dissemble in our pursuit of the truth. All three- Protestant/Reform, LDS, and Catholic positions are supported by a fair, honest and objective reading of the passage.
Does a 'certain part' = equal tithe / tithe settlement - not by either the context of the passage nor the greek itself.
Do you see it translated as portion? (not by me, but by Biblegateway)
10, 10, 10, you are completely unaware of the term 'translation' in this context. There is no greek word in the passage that directly equates to 'portion', but the two words I've already identified from the Greek. Portion in Greek is "Μερίδα " which isn't in the greek text of the passage. If you are going to use the lexicon tools - try to use them correctly.
e.g. I sell and gain $100, withholding $20 secretly for myself and report the total of $80 as my net gain. Now that $80 represents 100% of my reported gain on which I give some portion/share/certain part.
I certainly wouldn't want you as my accountant. The issue - if you bothered to read the context - is that Ananias claimed it was the whole amount of the sale - the gross amount. Further then by your assessment, you are now making the tithe 100% on the gross amount. Context is our friend 10. hey were not compelled to sell it, or when sold to give the money, or to give all. Their sin was not withholding a part, but lying about it.
Here you could be right. It isn't an offering of $8 or 10%, a tithe, but $40, $25, $52. We don't know and the story doesn't say.
10, if you bother to study the early church at all, you will find that much of the structure and concepts used were still largely based upon the mosaic covenant. A tithe was 10% by mosaic definition - so you are grossly incorrect on this matter - we do know. We also know that a money offering was something given out of love with not percentage standards placed upon it.
Restornu's and the Catholic author's contention that it is a tithe is also supported by a plain reading of the text in either English or the Greek.
Catholic author - that is clearly a dishonest representation of what this author wrote 10. He makes absolutely no statement equating this to tithing what so ever. And clearly the reading in the Greek does not support your interpretations as well as those in the english. The context is plain, their sin was claiming the offering was the TOTAL GROSS amount received, which was the lie.
Let's not dissemble in our pursuit of the truth. All three- Protestant/Reform, LDS, and Catholic positions are supported by a fair, honest and objective reading of the passage.
Lousy try 10, both the Catholic and the reformation/protestant disagree with you. Yours is an example of eisengesis - where one forces and twists the bible passage to try to make it meet pre-determined doctrinal statements. The plain, open and HONEST reading of the passage rejects the lsd claim of tithing. You claim not to know what the story says - but that is incorrect too, the story is clear - the lie was that it was the GROSS amount given - clear and simple.