Priests are a gift from the Heart of Christ, Pope Benedict says

CNA ^ | 6/13/2010

[markomalley]

Vatican City, Jun 13, 2010 / 10:58 am (CNA/EWTN News).- Thousands of pilgrims and faithful gathered at noon Sunday in St. Peter’s Square to pray the Angelus with the Holy Father. Before the prayer, he said that the fruits of the recently ended Year for Priests could never be measured, but are already visible and will continue to be ever more so.

“The priest is a gift from the heart of Christ, a gift for the Church and for the world. From the heart of the Son of God, overflowing with love, all the goods of the Church spring forth,” proclaimed Pope Benedict XVI. “One of those goods is the vocations of those men who, conquered by the Lord Jesus, leave everything behind to dedicate themselves completely to the Christian community, following the example of the Good Shepherd.”

The Holy Father described the priest as having been formed by “the same charity of Christ, that love which compelled him to give his life for his friends and to forgive his enemies.”

“Therefore,” he continued, “priests are the primary builders of the civilization of love.”

Benedict XVI exhorted priests to always seek the intercession of St. John Marie Vianney, whose prayer, the “Act of Love,” was prayed frequently during the Year for Priests, and “continues to fuel our dialogue with God.”

The pontiff also spoke about the close of the Year for Priests, which took place this past week and culminated with the Solemnity of the Sacred Heart of Jesus. He emphasized “the unforgettable days in the presence of more than 15,000 priests from around the world.”

The feast of the Sacred Heart is traditionally a “day of priestly holiness,” but this time it was especially so, Benedict XVI remarked.

Pope Benedict concluded his comments by noting that, in contemplating history, “one observes so many pages of authentic social and spiritual renewal which have been written by the decisive contribution of Catholic priests.” These were inspired “only by their passion for the Gospel and for mankind, for his true civil and religious freedom.”

“So many initiatives that promote the entire human being have begun with the intuition of a priestly heart,” he exclaimed.

The Pope then prayed the Angelus, greeted those present in various languages, and imparted his apostolic blessing.

[annalex]

The Christian doctrines do not come from the Holy Scripture. The Scripture comes from the Church, but so do beliefs and practices not specifically included in the canonized text. Naturally, the teachings of the Church are in full accordance with the scripture -- something the Protestants claim for themselves without scriptural evidence, -- but they are not necessarily contained and spelled out in the scripture.

It is illogical to expect the Scripture to reflect on the lives of saints that are chronologically outside of the scope of the Gospel. The veneration of saints is something that the Church in her God-given power to bind ind loose (Matthew 16:19, 18:18) proposes for our salvation.

We know, however, some aspects of what you ask from the scripture:

Mary was born without sin

That is easy; archangel Gabriel describes her as "full of grace"; that means, there was no room for sin in her. Grace displaces sin.

she remained a virgin her entire life

That is not spoken about in the scripture, but given that her maternal function was fulfilled miraculously and without a marital act (Matthew 1:25) there would be no reason for her to seek carnal union with Joseph. Nor would Joseph be so impious as to desecrate the Tabernacle of the Living Word that her holy womb is. Note, too, that she did not intend to be with Joseph anyway (Luke 1:34).

she was assumed and did not see death

The dogma of Assumption does not say anything about her tasting death. You are free to believe that she did experience death. That she was assumed into heaven in the body can be inferred from Rev. 12. Remember, as well, that all the elect will be assumed and their bodies restored in the fullness of time (Matthew 24:31, 1 Cor. 15:52). Where Mary went, we shall follow.

we are to pray to her for anything

This can be inferred from the Miracle at Cana, where Mary intereceded for the headwaiter (John 2:2). Intercession on behalf of others is a common theme of the Gospel; see, for example, several acts of healing solicited not by the sick person but someone else.

people are to be canonized as saints and prayed to

We pray to saints because we want to pray to God in their company, and praise God for giving them holiness. The earliest, somewhat theologically unsound instance of veneration of Mary is recorded in Luke 11:27-28. Note that Jesus corrects the proper subjects of veneratin being holiness rather than Mary's motherhood per se, and that He explains that all the holy men are to be likewise venerated, and not just Mary alone.

Regarding canonization of saints, see for example, John 17:17, Ephesians 5:26, 1 Thessalonians 5:23, Hebrews 12:1. The very act of canonization is a necessity since often claims of miracles are made without proper substantiation; the Church does it most specifically as the keeper of the Keys to the Heavenly Kingdom (Matthew 16:19).

Where are the instructions to the church in selecting Peter’s successors

There are none, and indeed the procedure changed over time a bit. There is no doubt though that the papacy of Peter was to be perpetuated (2 Peter 1:14-15).

Thank you very much for your interest. Feel free to follow up.

[annalex]

Jesus Christ fulfills the Law

Yes. And He is the King of Israel and so His Church is true Israel.

[small voice in the wilderness]

Nice try, if you’re a pretzel maker. Other than that, it’s devoid of Scriptural truth. Other than the one truth you manage to GET: He IS the King of Israel.

[kosta50]

The “Lord” cannot be turned into a generic “master”. If it were simply a matter of style then the verse could be read as “LORD the lord”

No because YHWH doesn't mean "LORD". It means GOD. English translations call it the LORD. The other word means master or lord.

ust gave you the example of Jos. 3:11 where adown is used to refer to God

And I told you it was done with a QUALIFICATION ("of the world"). Otherwise it could never be associated with God by itself. However YHWH or Adonai, or Ha-Shem are ALWAYS associated with God by themselves. Adoun is not. It must be qualified in order to apply to divinity. By itself it never does.

At Matt. 22:42 Jesus asks the Pharisees who they think the Christ is, whose son is he? and they answer, “David's”, though David was anointed as king.

No he doesn't. He asks "Who do you think is the anointed one?" (Greek: christos). And they answer David's because that's what Judaism teaches: the Jewish meshiyah (messiah, the anointed one) will be "of the seed of David" and therefore a king. And all Israeli kings were anointed and had the title the "son of God" just like the angels.

David by inspiration calls the Christ his “Lord” not just a generic owner, but a title of respect for a superior

This is all Christian innovation. David doesn't call anyone anything. This is a psalm to be chanted by a Levite priest "YHWH said to my lord (David)..." David being the High Priest for founding the city of Jerusalem and the first Temple.

David wasn't talking about himself in Ps. 110.

He certainly wasn't talking about Jesus.

and any of David's lineage if king would sit on David's throne. But since David was not talking about himself Ps. 110 is talking about the Christ

Pure speculation. It doesn't follow. Jesus was not a king, did not sit on David's throne and was never mentioned by name.

Christ sat on David's throne as Peter said at Acts 2:30, David being a prophet and the Psalms being prophetic of the Christ

Peter? I believe Peter was misquoting Ps 132:25 which says "The LORD has sworn to David a truth from which He will not turn back: 'Of the fruit of your body I will set upon your throne.'" Where is the prophesy? Where is Jesus in it?

Isn't this the same Peter who only a few verses earlier calls Jesus a man? "Men of Israel, listen to these words: Jesus the Nazarene, a man attested to you by God...Act 2:22, and then again ""And on the basis of faith in His name, it is the name of Jesus which has strengthened this man whom you see and know..." (Act 3:16).

Not surprisingly the Jews didn't really care for such an idea as the Christ being both Lord and son of David but so what?

It's not that they didn't care. He doesn't fit the requirements for the Jewish messiah based on the Old Testament. This is like Mormons saying Christians don't care that Jesus visited America...it's simply not what the Christians believe.

[“Besides, Jesus never mentions verse 4.”] But David did. It show he wasn't talking about himself but prophetically about the Christ who would be both high priest and king

Christ is not mentioned in any way. And it's not David speaking. It's a liturgical song chanted by a Levite priest.

[annalex]

See where dividing dispositions got you.

Are you familiar with this:

17 ...thou, being a wild olive, art ingrafted in them, and art made partaker of the root, and of the fatness of the olive tree

[...]

23 And they also, if they abide not still in unbelief, shall be grafted in: for God is able to graft them in again. 24 For if thou wert cut out of the wild olive tree, which is natural to thee; and, contrary to nature, were grafted into the good olive tree; how much more shall they that are the natural branches, be grafted into their own olive tree? 25 For I would not have you ignorant, brethren, of this mystery, (lest you should be wise in your own conceits), that blindness in part has happened in Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles should come in. (Romans 11)

the kingdom of God shall be taken from you, and shall be given to a nation yielding the fruits thereof. (Matthew 21:43)

6 ...Behold, I lay in Sion a chief corner stone, elect, precious. And he that shall believe in him, shall not be confounded. 7 To you therefore that believe, he is honour: but to them that believe not, the stone which the builders rejected, the same is made the head of the corner: 8 And a stone of stumbling, and a rock of scandal, to them who stumble at the word, neither do believe, whereunto also they are set. 9 But you are a chosen generation, a kingly priesthood, a holy nation, a purchased people: that you may declare his virtues, who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light: 10 Who in time past were not a people: but are now the people of God. (1 Peter 2)

Behold the Heavenly Jerusalem:

2 And I John saw the holy city, the new Jerusalem, coming down out of heaven from God, prepared as a bride adorned for her husband. 3 And I heard a great voice from the throne, saying: Behold the tabernacle of God with men, and he will dwell with them. And they shall be his people; and God himself with them shall be their God. 4 And God shall wipe away all tears from their eyes: and death shall be no more, nor mourning, nor crying, nor sorrow shall be any more, for the former things are passed away. 5 And he that sat on the throne, said: Behold, I make all things new. And he said to me: Write, for these words are most faithful and true. 6 And he said to me: It is done. I am Alpha and Omega; the beginning and the end. To him that thirsteth, I will give of the fountain of the water of life, freely. 7 He that shall overcome shall possess these things, and I will be his God (Rev. 21)

[boatbums]

I don’t have fears regarding Catholic beliefs, I just can’t accept what I find Scripture does not support.

And may I add, I don't have a problem with any religion having and following their own traditions. My problem is when a religion that calls itself the one and only true Christian Church creates traditions NOT based on scripture or incorrectly based on scripture they misinterpret and which then contradicts other clear scripture and then declare/proclaim that one cannot be saved unless they adhere to those traditions.

This kind of thinking led to people being executed for not confessing to belief in the tradition. We see it still happening in the Muslim religion and we have history that tells us Catholics did it to others and Catholics had it done to them.

[small voice in the wilderness]

Bad news: you are NOT Israel.

and it's D.I.S.P.E.N.S.A.T.I.O.N.S... not

D.I.S.P.O.S.I.T.I.O.N.S..

[annalex]

I am not here to discuss your ideas and terminology.

[RnMomof7]

yep

[RnMomof7]

LOL, if you say so...by fiat. And what do you have to offer as proof of this nonsense?

No I say so because I can see the OT types and prophecies, something the Jews and unsaved are blinded from seeing .

1Corth2: 14The man without the Spirit does not accept the things that come from the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him, and he cannot understand them, because they are spiritually discerned. 15The spiritual man makes judgments about all things, but he himself is not subject to any man’s judgment:

16“For who has known the mind of the Lord that he may instruct him?”d But we have the mind of Christ.

This is not a complicated passage, and like all the old Testament points to Christ.

This discussion caused me to look to see if any teachers saw what I see in the passage

PSALM 110

In this psalm David sets forth the perpetuity of Christ’s reign, and the eternity of his priesthood; and, in the first place, he affirms, That God conferred upon Christ supreme dominion, combined with invincible power, with which he either conquers all his enemies, or compels them to submit to him. In the second place, he adds, That God would extend the boundaries of this kingdom far and wide; and, in the third place, That Christ, having been installed into the priestly office with all the solemnity of an oath, sustains the honors of that equally with those of his regal office. Finally, That this shall be a new order of priesthood, whose introduction shall put an end to the Levitical priesthood, which was temporary, and that it shall be everlasting Link

Interesting how this brings us right back to the subject of the priesthood huh? Maybe that is why Catholics misread it? ya think?

[Dr. Eckleburg]

If one has the indwelling Christ of what additional benefit is a 5 min digestion of a piece of bread to anyone? Either one has Christ or does not .

Does a piece of bread make one more holy? Know Christ better?

If the indwelling Spirit of God is not sufficient to live a holy life, to grow in the knowledge of Christ , to be led to do His will how is a 5min encounter going to change anything?

Amen! Just more illogical, anti-Scriptural whimsy from the RCC.

If Rome didn't concoct a false charade to distribute or withhold Christ from the masses, where would they look for their salvation?

The word of God, perhaps?

[Dr. Eckleburg]

.Their doctrine also implies that the spiritual is of less benefit than the physical.

"Christ in you the Hope of Glory"..is not speaking of communion..it is speaking of the indwelling Christ.

Either you are saved and therefore have the indwelling Spirit 24/7 or you are unsaved and looking for quick fills of emotional spirituality..

That is the Gospel truth. If Roman Catholics would just read their bibles, they might "come to the knowledge of the truth."

Cause they're sure far from it as of now.

[count-your-change]

“No because YHWH doesn't mean “LORD”. It means GOD. English translations call it the LORD. The other word means master or lord.”
Not responsive to my comment.

“And I told you it was done with a QUALIFICATION (”of the world”). Otherwise it could never be associated with God by itself. However YHWH or Adonai, or Ha-Shem are ALWAYS associated with God by themselves. Adoun is not. It must be qualified in order to apply to divinity. By itself it never does.”
I KNOW WHAT YOU SAID. That doesn't make it so. And your assertion that it does changes nothing. I gave an example of what I said was the case. Another is Isa. 1:24:

“Therefore saith the Lord, the LORD of hosts, the mighty One of Israel, Ah, I will ease me of mine adversaries, and avenge me of mine enemies:”

All three titles apply to the same one but each is applicable in and of its self. So much for “must be”.

“No he doesn't. He asks “Who do you think is the anointed one?” (Greek: christos). And they answer David's because that's what Judaism teaches: the Jewish meshiyah (messiah, the anointed one) will be “of the seed of David” and therefore a king. And all Israeli kings were anointed and had the title the “son of God” just like the angels.”

The Greek word “khristos” can be translated “ The Anointed One” or “The Messiah” or transliterated as “The Christ”.
It depends on the translator as I have three interlinears and they each use a different word at vs. 42. The meaning of the verse isn't changed.

“This is all Christian innovation. David doesn't call anyone anything. This is a psalm to be chanted by a Levite priest “YHWH said to my lord (David)...” David being the High Priest for founding the city of Jerusalem and the first Temple.”

Progress. You have the right temple. It's David's Psalm. No matter who recited, chanted, quoted, etc., it's David speaking and not about himself as Jesus understood and so did the Pharisees whether Jewish innovation says otherwise or not.

David a high priest? No. Tribe of Judah, no high priest. The kings of Israel could not and did not combine the offices of priest and king. Christ could and David's Psalm prophetically, Note that word “PROPHETICALLY” calls him such.

“Pure speculation. It doesn't follow. Jesus was not a king, did not sit on David's throne and was never mentioned by name.”

Sorry. You strike out again. Jesus rejected efforts to set him up as a king. It was the resurrected Christ that was to become king, “My kingdom is no part of this world” (John 18:36) and sit on David's throne.

“He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David:” (Luke 1:32)

“Peter? I believe Peter was misquoting Ps 132:25 which says “The LORD has sworn to David a truth from which He will not turn back: ‘Of the fruit of your body I will set upon your throne.’” Where is the prophesy? Where is Jesus in it?”

See above. You strike out.....again. P.S. it was Ps. 132:11 not 25. kosta’s opinions versus Peter's inspiration? Peter wins by a unanimous decision! ding, ding, ding!!!!

“It's not that they didn't care. He doesn't fit the requirements for the Jewish messiah based on the Old Testament. This is like Mormons saying Christians don't care that Jesus visited America...it's simply not what the Christians believe.”

Jesus didn't fit the “requirements” of an apostate religious leadership that worried about more losing their privileged positions than serving God. 70 c.e. answered the question of whether they were right or Jesus was right.

“Christ is not mentioned in any way. And it's not David speaking. It's a liturgical song chanted by a Levite priest.”

Peter again says otherwise (Acts 2:34-36) and you're out of strikes.

[count-your-change]

Well yes, it is hard to be enthusiastic about getting one’s head chopped off no matter who is doing it. And it's especially galling when the chopist wants you to agree with them before they do so.

[Diamond]

As your source admits, it eventually became associated with the garden of Eden, (still meaning the garden or park), i.e. the paradis of Eden, and only so in the apocryphal works. Surely you don't consider the Apocalypse of Moses a genuine biblical text! It is a latter-day Christian work written in Greek based on some Jewish legends.

Only so in the only so in the apocryphal works???

"In Second Temple era Judaism 'paradise' came to be associated with the Garden of Eden and prophesies of restoration of Eden. The Septuagint uses the word around 30 times, both of Eden, (Gen.2:7 etc.) and of Eden restored (Ezek. 28:13, 36:35) etc."

The last time I checked, Jesus was contemporaneous with the Second Temple era, and the Septuagint was was already in existence BEFORE Christ.

But you are using this out of context. Apocalypses are writings of the Essenes and are not considered mainline Judaism, and Talmud is a Christian-era rabbinic work, heavily influenced by Platonic beliefs.

When I speak of Judaism, I speak of pre-Christian, pre-Babylonian, genuine Judaism. It seems to me that most people have no idea that Judaism evolved and is not what it used to be in beginning (i.e. the Torah Judaism). Today, Judaism is a Pharisaical branch of Judaism that evolved in the Christian world, heavily influenced by mysticism, legends, Platonism ,etc.

When Jesus allegedly spoke to the good thief, there was no Talmud, and last time I checked he wasn't an Essene either.. Talmud doesn't come into existence until about 200 years after Christ and isn't completed until about 500 years after him. You can't just spill facts without their context.

What you think constitutes "genuine Judaism", i.e., "Torah Judaism" is not germane to the issue of when these ideas and terms were in use. What is relevant is that the word 'paradise' was already associated with the Garden of Eden and prophesies of restoration of Eden at the time Jesus was being crucified.

In other words, genuine Judaism prohibited belief in immortal soul. The key word here is post-exilic, after the exile. In other words when Persial freed Israel form Babylonian captivity and influenced Judaism with Zoroastrianism, c. 5th century BC.

It seems to me some key words go right by you, or you don;t read the whole thing.

As a matter of fact, eternal life was ascribed exclusively to God and to celestial beings who "eat of the tree of life and live forever" (Gen. iii. 22, Hebr.), whereas man by being driven out of the Garden of Eden was deprived of the opportunity of eating the food of immortality

Duh!

It is the Psalmist's implicit faith in God's omnipotence and omnipresence that leads him to the hope of immortality

It was only in connection with the Messianic hope that, under the influence of Persian ideas, the belief in resurrection lent to the disembodied soul a continuous existence (Isa. xxv. 6-8; Dan. xii. 2

Messianic hope is a latter-day development in Judaism. In fact it can be traced tom a VERY late development and influence of pagan Greek thought

The belief in the immortality of the soul came to the Jews from contact with Greek thought and chiefly through the philosophy of Plato, its principal exponent, who was led to it through Orphic and Eleusinian mysteries in which Babylonian and Egyptian views were strangely blended, as the Semitic name "Minos"

So, today's Jewish belief in immortality or resurrection is a later development (limited only to Pharisaical Judaism, the form of Judaism that survived and morphed into rabbinic Judaism after 70 AD and the second Exile that produced Christian Era Talmud), and can be traced to Persian, Greek and Egyptian origins, none of which have anything to do with the genuine Mosaic Judaism.

The last time I checked, c. 5th century BC is BEFORE Christ, Ps. xvi. 10, xlix. 16, cxxxix. 8, Isa. xxv. 6-8; Dan. xii. 2 are Biblical passages that were written BEFORE Christ; ("...the belief in resurrection lent to the disembodied soul a continuous existence") and I think there is something in the Bible about Jesus and that Messianic thing, too.

If man by "being driven out of the Garden of Eden was deprived of the opportunity of eating the food of immortality" then Jesus' words to the thief make perfect sense. I am reminded of His words, "He who lives and believes in Me shall never die.", and "Do not labor for the food that perishes, but for the food that endures to eternal life, which the Son of Man will give to you. For on him God the Father has set his seal."

My personal opinion is that Jesus was using a simple, picturesque one-word metaphor or type for eternal life and immortality with a word that was associated with prophetic references to Eden and Eden restored, but also a word that would have meant something in a simpler way to the thief. People who are dying will sometimes use symbolic language. My own father used a baseball metaphor to me when he was dying in 1975, similar to the one in the 2002 movie, "Signs"; "Swing away, Merle." To the thief 'paradise' may have just meant a garden like place, or possibly the gardens around a king's palace, if he were a gentile, something like Eden if he were a Jew. Conveying a simple and a complex meaning at the same time are not mutually exclusive.

Your tacit admissions of the timeline prove that the word and the ideas were in currency at the time Jesus used it, and that it is not at all impossible or even implausible that he used it, your objections over "genuine Judaism" and your fine eschatological distinctions on the differences between Heaven and Eden notwithstanding.

Cordially,

[kosta50]

No I say so because I can see the OT types and prophecies, something the Jews and unsaved are blinded from seeing

Every religion uses that argument because blind faith has no other argument.

This discussion caused me to look to see if any teachers saw what I see in the passage

I am sure there people who agree with you. Just like there were 70,000 who "witnessed" the "falling: Sun in Fatima, Portugal. Appealing to other person's opinions, impresisons and beleiefs is not a proof they are true but only that the other person agrees with you.

[count-your-change]

What or who do you put faith in, kosta?

[RnMomof7]

I am sure there people who agree with you. Just like there were 70,000 who "witnessed" the "falling: Sun in Fatima, Portugal. Appealing to other person's opinions, impresisons and beleiefs is not a proof they are true but only that the other person agrees with you

The question is not what 70,000 saw or thought they saw..the question is who caused it?

[kosta50]

Not responsive to my comment.

Sure it is. Adoun simply means any master. If qualified with words such as "of the world" then it applies to God. It doesn't apply to God alone as Ha-Shem, Adonai or YFWH does. So a sentence that says YHWH told my master does not imply in any way that the "master" is divine, as Christians read it.

“Therefore saith the Lord, the LORD of hosts, the mighty One of Israel...All three titles apply to the same

Are you trying to be intentionally obtuse or what? Adoun by itself, wihtout qualification, is never used for God. In this case it is qualified with Lord of Hosts and Lord of Israel. Adoun means master. Master by itself doesn't mean God. I mean a five-year old would understand this.

The Greek word “khristos” can be translated “ The Anointed One” or “The Messiah” or transliterated as “The Christ”.

No it can't. It was Paul who invented the "name" Christ. Until then it was a title not attached to any particular person.

Progress. You have the right temple

Inadvertent error on my part. You never make mistakes? But if you knew better why didn't you correct me when it was relevant?

Tribe of Judah, no high priest

And Jesus was of what tribe?

The kings of Israel could not and did not combine the offices of priest and king. Christ could...

No one called Christ the High Priest and he was not the king of Israel.

You strike out again. Jesus rejected efforts to set him up as a king. It was the resurrected Christ that was to become king, “My kingdom is no part of this world” (John 18:36) and sit on David's throne

More innovations. The kingdom of the Jewish messiah is here on earth. That said, the Jewish messiah would rule the kingdom on earth. In Matthew, Jesus states that his mission is on earth, and only for the lost sheep of Israel.

“He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David:” (Luke 1:32)

You just said he wasn't going to sit on the throne of David! Get your story straight. Besides, David was not his father ding...ding...ding!!!

Jesus didn't fit the “requirements” of an apostate religious leadership

LOL! What is "apostate" about the Bible? All requirements for the messiah are based on the OT. Here is a partial list as given by a Jewish source :

(1) He must be Jewish (see Deut. 17:15; Numb. 24:17); (2) He must be descended from Judah (Gen. 49:10) and Solomon (numerous places, but see I Chron 22:9-10); (3) With the coming of the Messiah will be the physical ingathering of Judah from the four corners of the earth (Isa. 11:12, 27:12-13); (4) Also with coming of the Messiah will be the reestablishment of the Holy Temple (Micah 4:1); (5) In addition the Messianic age will be one of world-wide peace (Isa. 2:4, 11:6, Micah 4:3); and, finally, (6) In the Messianic age the entire world will believe in G-d (Isa. 11:9, 40:5; Zephaniah 3:9)

More can be found on Wikipedia, Jewish Encyclopedia, etc.

Clearly, He doesn't fit the description except that he is Jewish.

[small voice in the wilderness]

I am not here to discuss your ideas and terminology

..and yet you keep posting your ideas and terminology to me...ironic, in a twisted, pretzel logic sort of way.