I don't think that is known. I've read equally plausible conclusions on either side of the question.
and Ambrose forbade married bishops conjugal relations.
Ambrose of Milan? How could he forbid or permit bishops anything?
(Canon 3): It is fitting that the holy bishops and priests of God as well as the Levites, i.e. those who are in the service of the divine sacraments, observe perfect continence, so that they may obtain in all simplicity what they are asking from God; what the Apostles taught and what antiquity itself observed, let us also endeavour to keep It pleases us all that bishop, priest and deacon, guardians of purity, abstain from CONJUGAL INTERCOURSE with their wives, so that those who serve at the altar may keep a perfect chastity.”(emphasis added)
As for Origen, I think it's more likely than not but I find craziness easy to believe at times.