Perhaps because your question was on evidence we LDS use to support our belief Christ is God.
There's no "perhaps" about it EW. The passage clearly states that men become gods because of their works, eternal marriage and compliance with the doctrines espoused in the D&C. It has nothing to do with supporting the LdS belief that Christ is God.
Matthew clearly states the fallacy of eternal marriage here;
Matt. 22:24 Saying, Master, Moses said, If a man die, having no children, his brother shall marry his wife, and raise up seed unto his brother.
25 Now there were with us seven brethren: and the first, when he had married a wife, deceased, and, having no issue, left his wife unto his brother:
26 Likewise the second also, and the third, unto the seventh.
27 And last of all the woman died also.
28 Therefore in the resurrection whose wife shall she be of the seven? for they all had her.
29 Jesus answered and said unto them, Ye do err, not knowing the scriptures, nor the power of God.
30 For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven.
Is this one of those "mistranslated" portions of the Bible?
According to the doctrines of mormonism, man can become a god because of the temple ordinances(eternal marriage) which are not found in any LdS scripture, only the admonition to do so under penalty of not attaining godhood if one does not do so.