[annalex]

That he did acknowledge the primacy of the Bishop of Rome, in the preamble and then chapter 3.

[boatbums]

That he did acknowledge the primacy of the Bishop of Rome, in the preamble and then chapter 3.

Are we still talking about Ignatius? That he would acknowledge the "primacy of the Bishop of Rome" would have meant he had some kind of ESP since that would not be true until 270 or so years in the future.