I was not implying perfect conformance on the part of the JST, but rather an improvement over the KJV. If that was not understood, I make the clarification now.
That is a SIGNIFICANT change from your earlier defense.
What was smith's prophetic command in regards to this revision of the KJV? I believe it was to go a lot farther than just an improvement don. Again, items left untouched are defacto according to the charge of Smith's translations to be correct.
So it would appear that you are now rejecting smith's translation / fixing of the KJV bible.