I have no idea. I am unaware of any commentary by JS regarding JST.
You just made a claim that smith's edits to the KJV which have become the JST restored the word to "conform to the original manuscripts through inspiration from God" did you not? Come on Don, the logic is very simple
smith restored the text to conform to the origional ms via God's interpretation
smith didn't edit out the Johnnian comma
The Johnnine comma is properly presented in the KJV as conformed to the origional ms.