Replies

The Stephen's Greek (used to make the KJV):

Νῦν χαίρω ἐν τοῖς παθήμασιν μου ὑπὲρ ὑμῶν καὶ ἀνταναπληρῶ τὰ ὑστερήματα τῶν θλίψεων τοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐν τῇ σαρκί μου ὑπὲρ τοῦ σώματος αὐτοῦ ὅ ἐστιν ἡ ἐκκλησία

The Nestle Greek:

νῦν χαίρω ἐν τοῖς παθήμασιν ὑπὲρ ὑμῶν καὶ ἀνταναπληρῶ τὰ ὑστερήματα τῶν θλίψεων τοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐν τῇ σαρκί μου ὑπὲρ τοῦ σώματος αὐτοῦ ὅ ἐστιν ἡ ἐκκλησία

Wescott and Hort:

Νῦν χαίρω ἐν τοῖς παθήμασιν ὑπὲρ ὑμῶν, καὶ ἀνταναπληρῶ τὰ ὑστερήματα τῶν θλίψεων τοῦ χριστοῦ ἐν τῇ σαρκί μου ὑπὲρ τοῦ σώματος αὐτοῦ, ὅ ἐστιν ἡ ἐκκλησία

There might be some variant reading (if you can give me one, that is fine with me), but in all three cases above, we concern ourselves with the word ὑστερήματα

ὑστέρ-ημα means shortcoming, deficiency, need

Strong's (5303): a deficit; specially, poverty:--that which is behind, (that which was) lack(-ing), penury, want.

Thayer's: 1. deficiency, that which is lacking 2. in reference to property and resources, poverty, want, destitution

Evidence does not stand with you, Iscool. If your theology is in disagreement the Scriptures, it appears as if you'd prefer to adjust the Scriptures to meet your theology, rather than vice versa. It seems as a sola scriptura man, it should be the other way around...or so one would think.

Now that the antagonists have adopted the position that if they are shown to be ignorant of the Bible that means they are spiritually superior, we're in a little trouble.

In any event the word seems to appear in the text used in the KJV:
(1) in Phil 2:30 to mean lack
(2) Luke 21:4 to mean penury
(3) 2 Cor 8:14 and
(4) 2 Cor 9:12 to mean want, and

(5)TO mean lacking in 1 Cor 16:17
(6) 2 Cor 11: 9 and
(7) I Thess 3:10.

(8) In Col 1:24 it is translated "to be behind."

Now some say that the greek word is used only twice. This muyst mean that, not having arithmetical accomplishments puts themn in the class of babes to whom the truth has been revealed, while we who can count on both hands are obviously steeped in intellectual pride.

But I'd say the smart money is on "what is behind" not being the translation that comes trippinglyoff the tongue or flows easily out of the pen.

But as I say, when argument, numbers, architecture, history, grammar, and logic fail, they can always say that that means that they are right and we are spiritually blind. Right AND humble in it. It's wonderful to see.

There might be some variant reading (if you can give me one, that is fine with me), but in all three cases above, we concern ourselves with the word ὑστερήματα

G5303
ὑστέρημα
husterēma
hoos-ter'-ay-mah From G5302; a deficit; specifically poverty: - that which is behind, (that which was) lack (-ing), penury, want.

The word you picked is not the same word used by the KJV translators...

You referenced Nestles...Nestles has revised it's translation so many times that the words in use may change from month to month...

Wescort and Hort use your Egyptian manuscripts for their version and I don't know about Stephen...

Thayer's: 1. deficiency, that which is lacking 2. in reference to property and resources, poverty, want, destitution

The word the KJV translators used can be translated that which is behind...And it correctly was...

The KJV translators may have consulted Stephen's translation but they certainly were not limited to it...

Evidence does not stand with you, Iscool. If your theology is in disagreement the Scriptures, it appears as if you'd prefer to adjust the Scriptures to meet your theology, rather than vice versa.

You mean evidence from your Catholic Egyptian manuscripts...And I wholeheartedly agree...The KJV translators had the right manuscripts and they made the right translation...