I’d like to know where in the Bible. The test I am familiar with is the test by the works, described in the second part of Matthew 25. If this is to sanctify the already justified believer, then why is the same test applied to those who are condemned? Why are the just already described and being saintly, giving of themselves to others? I think you are confused about what the Bible says, therefore I ask.
At any rate, that test you are talking about, is that by the works, or by what?
annalex,
I’m generally not a fan of these types of discussions where each side throws out their proof texts and declares that that particular proof text wins the case. Exegesis of Scripture should take into effect the whole corpus of Scripture and a complete storyline from which individual texts, periscopes, and books are considered in the context of the whole.
We’ve had now over 500 years of debate of whether justification is on-going or whether there is a division between justification and sanctification. My suggestion to you is to post another thread from your side that rebuts the Protestant arguments of a two-fold grace of justification and sanctification and we can discuss those arguments.
Sound fair?