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To: Kolokotronis; Mr Rogers; MarkBsnr; kosta50
The usage in Luke 1:9 is referring to a Hebrew priest.

The usage in St. Cyril of Jerusalem (AD 387) is not exactly 1c. There is no doubt that the switch to "ιερεύς" meaning Christian priest occurred at some time, and that paragraph shows that it occurred as early as late 4c.

The question is, do "episcopos" and "presbyteros" in the New Testament refer to consecrated Christian clergy or not. I think it is plain that they do, in light of Acts 6:6 (consecration of deacons), 1 Timothy 4:14 (Timothy ordained into priesthood, although later we understand that he also functioned a sbishop, ordaining others), 1 Timothy 5:22 (Timothy to select carefully whom to ordain) Titus 1:5 (specific instruction to "ordain priests in any city", followed by instruction on how they are to be selected). 1 Timothy 3:1-2 speaks of the "office of a bishop"; Acts 20:28 refers to bishops "ruling the Church". "Episcopos" and "presbyteros" are indeed used, it seems interchangeably (cf 1 Timothy 4:14 and 1 Timothy 5:22), but the hirerarchical nature of the Early Church is evident from these verses.

222 posted on 11/05/2009 11:03:21 AM PST by annalex (http://www.catecheticsonline.com/CatenaAurea.php)
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To: annalex

If a priest offers sacrifices - and that certainly was their role in Judaism - then the Christian has no need for priests, for we have no sacrifice to offer. Jesus did it himself, once for all.

Being ordained a deacon doesn’t mean you offer sacrifices. Being ordained an Elder does not either. That is where my objection to the word ‘priest’ comes from.

That is why the NT knows nothing of Christian priests, except in 1 Peter, where all believers are said to be “a holy priesthood, to offer spiritual sacrifices acceptable to God through Jesus Christ.”

No sacrifice for forgiveness of sin, since there was only one, and it was past and not to be again.


223 posted on 11/05/2009 11:22:08 AM PST by Mr Rogers (I loathe the ground he slithers on!)
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