How can you deny something that never existed? When Pope +Leo I (5th century) argued for strong papacy based on the Bible, he did not use Jude 11 or Numbers 16 as scriptural "evidence" that Moses prefigured Peter and Peters' successors at Rome.
If he did, the Church would have denied it, because no one in the Church, Latin or Greek, understood it to mean that. What Pope argues that Jude 11 or Numbers 16 does? As far as I know, they use Matthew 16 for that purpose.
By saying something means "x," only "x," and nothing but "x."
Anything else is simply a variation on the reformation claim "anything not included in scripture is a contradiction of scripture."