Not literally — the word Papa was not in anyone’s vocabulary at that time. But what is a bishop of Rome doing telling the Church in Corinth (that would be in Greece, you know, far far away) to reinstate some priests, and bringing up the rod of Aaron to justify his authority?
Probably the same thing Blessed Augustine or +Athanasius the Great or +John Chrysostomos were doing when they used the same example for the same reason.
BTW, Corinth, far, far away from Rome, maybe as far as 3-4 days’ sailing from Italy, was within his jurisdiction, Constantinople not having been established at that point. Had he written to Christians at, say, Alexandria or Antioch making the same arguments, that might mean something. But so far as we know, he didn’t.