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To: Quix; GiovannaNicoletta
I am quoting these scripure passages that refer to “The King of the South” and “The King of the North”. I searched several translations and versions and the ONLY references in the Bible for Kings of the South or North are found in Daniel 11. I can assume that a “King” of a certain area (i.e., North, South, etc.) would imply the entire area. There are scriptural references to The King of the East but no King of the West. Does it specifically say the “furthermost areas of the north”? No, not specifically but why the use of the term “king” if it only means nations to the north of a location?
29 posted on 09/13/2009 9:46:00 PM PDT by boatbums ("A man who spits in the wind, is spitting in his own face," B. Franklin)
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To: boatbums

The verse I’m thinking of

has some wording like:

—northern most
—uttermost north

etc.

Haven’t found it yet, either.

I’m 100% certain it’s in Scripture, however. Have read it many times and noted that folks who would argue against Russia as fitting those prophecies were off the wall clueless because of that verse. No other country possibly fits.

My memory of Scripture is in the KJV, BTW.


30 posted on 09/13/2009 10:05:21 PM PDT by Quix (POL Ldrs quotes fm1900 2 presnt: http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/religion/2130557/posts?page=81#81)
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To: boatbums

I don’t know that the verse I’m recalling has any mention of KING of the North or South in it.


31 posted on 09/13/2009 10:06:07 PM PDT by Quix (POL Ldrs quotes fm1900 2 presnt: http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/religion/2130557/posts?page=81#81)
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