Not at all. I just don't believe the dispensationalist interpretation that it is speaking of a future generation of Jewish people who will suffer God's wrath for no biblical reason.
You see, dispensationalism forces it hermeneutical approach on the text regardless of what the rest of the Bible may say on the subject. When people disagree and point out the inconsistencies with that approach, the dispensationalists fall back on their standard one liners.
Why will God pour His wrath out upon the millions that dispensationalists envision are killed without Christ during the future "great tribulation"? What does the text actually say to support that view?
Oh there are a whole bible's worth of reasons TC. It is the same reason the rest of the world is judged - on their rejection of Jesus - and more specifically Jesus as Messiah. Or are you saying that the Babylonian captivity and the Diaspora were for no biblical reasons either?
Your comment foolishly limits the judgment mainly to Israel and not applying it universally as supported from the rest of scripture (woops, we pretrib types don't apply the rest of what the bible says). In short, you are blinded to the fact that Zechariah 12—14 is not just Israel's judgment but Israel's redemption. Tell us, is the church replacing Israel in this passage too?
You see, dispensationalism forces it hermeneutical approach on the text regardless of what the rest of the Bible may say on the subject. When people disagree and point out the inconsistencies with that approach, the dispensationalists fall back on their standard one liners.
LOL, I must not have gotten the notes as to what these 'one liners' are. The bible from the OT to the NT speaks about a final judgement of the world and its peoples. Or are you now accusing God of being unjust in His punishment of His creation? Your comment just further goes to show the shallowness of your understanding of dispensational hermeneutics. My personal studies of end times prophecies cross reference all across the bible and closely review what the whole bible would say. AFA hermeneutical approaches, I still am waiting to see the superiority of your views in regards to Mt 24 being fulfilled in AD 70. . . . . . .
Why will God pour His wrath out upon the millions that dispensationalists envision are killed without Christ during the future "great tribulation"? What does the text actually say to support that view?
For the same reason God will further condemn them to eternity in hell - their willful rejection of Christ. What does the text actually say? Please TC, say you have even taken the time to read the whole bible. For starters and historical background, read the story of Noah. Then review the Exodus story of Israel and those God killed in judgement for their rebellion(s). Study the prophetic pronouncements on the various countries surrounding Israel in the OT. Now with that foundation, start researching Rev 6:8 (1/4th of the world's population killed), 16-17; the angel judgments of Rev 8; an additional third of the remaining population is killed Rev 9:18. I will not insult your intelligence to let you look up the multitudes of 'reasons', for they boil down to one - rejection of and open rebellion towards God.
Or are you going to claim that these were some how fulfilled in AD 70 as well.
It is a disciplinary action with punishment by a wrathful and jealous God because of Israel choosing to make a covenant with the AntiChrist rather than returning to God and relying upon what He provides. It results in a terminal judgment upon all unbelievers, Gentiles(Joel 3:11-12; Mt 25:31-46) and Jews (Ezek 20:34-38) alike.