Jesus did not die because of fallen nature from Adam and Eve.His resurrection proves that death has been defeated. Mary's bodily assumption proves that a creature of God in perfect union with God's will defeated the OT Eve's disobedience,thus making her the New Eve that overcame fallen nature by being “full of Grace”(Kecharitomene)
What you're saying is that mortality has to have precedence over perfection,even in the case of Jesus and Mary.This would make Adam and Eve's sin have power over God.
Mary is also the “Immaculate ark” of the New Covenant joined together with Christ in her womb.(not just some vessel as some protestants think)
Thus, we see the early church fathers write...
Gregory the Wonder Worker (c. 213–c. 270) wrote: “Let us chant the melody that has been taught us by the inspired harp of David, and say, ‘Arise, O Lord, into thy rest; thou, and the ark of thy sanctuary.’ For the Holy Virgin is in truth an ark, wrought with gold both within and without, that has received the whole treasury of the sanctuary” (Homily on the Annunciation to the Holy Virgin Mary).Gregory the Wonder Worker (c. 213–c. 270)
“O noble Virgin, truly you are greater than any other greatness. For who is your equal in greatness, O dwelling place of God the Word? To whom among all creatures shall I compare you, O Virgin? You are greater than them all O [Ark of the] Covenant, clothed with purity instead of gold! You are the ark in which is found the golden vessel containing the true manna, that is, the flesh in which divinity resides” (Homily of the Papyrus of Turin). Athanasius of Alexandria (c. 296–373)
...and the scripture typology that goes along with this...
A cloud of glory covered the Tabernacle and Ark (Exodus 40:34-35; Numbers 9:15) = Type is
“And the angel said to her: “The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you’” (Luke 1:35)
Ark spent three months in the house of Obededom the Gittite (2 Samuel 6:11) = Type is
Mary spent three months in the house of Zechariah and Elizabeth (Luke 1:26, 40)
King David asked “How can the ark of the Lord come to me?” (2 Samuel 6:9) = Type is
Elizabeth asked Mary, “Why is this granted to me, that the mother of my Lord should come to me?” (Luke 1:43)
David Leaped and danced before the Lord when the Ark arrived in Jerusalem (2 Samuel 6:14 - 16) = Type is
John the Baptist leaped for joy in Elizabeth’s womb when Mary arrived (Luke 1:44)
“”How did the fall from grace happen to our ancestral parents? By accident?””
By free will- because there can be no love without free will or we are just rag dolls as you have stated many times
“”More importantly, did the Fall happen against God's will, plan and knowledge?””
Of course the fall happened against the will of God or evil would be in His essence and God does not need to plan since He sees everything in one NOW .Some mistakenly tend to view it as a successive plan with God changing His mind because they don't interpret the scriptures in light of Christ
That God understands all things at once and together By Saint Thomas Aquinas
THE reason why our understanding cannot understand many things together in one act is because in the act of understanding the mind becomes one with the object understood;* whence it follows that, were the mind to understand many things together in one act, it would be many things together, all of one genus, which is impossible. Intellectual impressions are all of one genus: they are of one type of being in the existence which they have in the mind, although the things of which they are impressions do not agree in one type of being: hence the contrariety of things outside the mind does not render the impressions of those things in the mind contrary to one another. And hence it is that when many things are taken together, being anyhow united, they are understood together. Thus a continuous whole is understood at once, not part by part; and a proposition is understood at once, not first the subject and then the predicate: because all the parts are known by one mental impression of the whole.* Hence we gather that whatever several objects are known by one mental presentation, can be understood together: but God knows all things by that one presentation of them, which is His essence; therefore He can understand all together and at once.
2. The faculty of knowledge does not know anything actually without some attention and advertence. Hence the phantasms, stored in the sensorium, are at times not actually in the imagination, because no attention is given to them. We do not discern together a multitude of things to which we do not attend together: but things that necessarily fall under one and the same advertence and attention, are necessarily understood together. Thus whoever institutes a comparison of two things, directs his attention to both and discerns both together. But all things that are in the divine knowledge must necessarily fall under one advertence; for God is attentive to behold His essence perfectly, which is to see it to the whole reach of its virtual content, which includes all things. God therefore, in beholding His essence, discerns at once all things that are.
6. Every mind that understands one thing after another, is sometimes potentially intelligent, sometimes actually so; for while it understands the first thing actually, it understands the second potentially. But the divine mind is never potentially intelligent, but always actually: it does not, then, understand things in succession, but all at once.
Holy Scripture witnesses to this truth, saying that with God there is no change nor shadow of vicissitude (James i, 17).
Mary has sinned she has died and cannot intercede for you. Jesus never called Mary mother he called her woman, and don't tell me that was a title of honor because he called the lady at the well woman too, am I supposed to pray to every woman? Read Mark 3:31-35 “Jesus says who is my Mother and Who are my Brothers” yup sounds like nothing but reverence. Mary holds no special title.
Then he committed suicide. Last time I checked, he died of wounds inflicted on him, perhaps at the hour of his choosing, but nonetheless his death was bodily real. Surely you are not suggesting he faked it?
If you want a theological take on it, he died in his human nature a real death, just like any one of us. Having assumed the sins of the whole world, he suffered corruption and death, even if he personally did not commit those sins.
His resurrection proves that death has been defeated.
In the context of him offering himself as ransom for us, yes. As +John Chrysostom says "Death expected a body and received God." Our sins have been "paid for" and death couldn't hold him, so death lost. It's a nice story, but it all boils down to hope that this is what happened. There is no proof of anything.
Mary's bodily assumption proves that a creature of God in perfect union with God's will defeated the OT Eve's disobedience,thus making her the New Eve that overcame fallen nature by being “full of Grace”(Kecharitomene)
But the "New Eve" according to the Latin Church never had a fallen nature to overcome. Yet it doesn't explain why would she die if she was not fallen and never sinned. Obviously the Church in the East believed all along that she did die and even celebrated her feast of Dormition. If the West did not believe that, why wasn't that brought up?
What you're saying is that mortality has to have precedence over perfection,even in the case of Jesus and Mary.This would make Adam and Eve's sin have power over God.
No, bother, it is not I but the Orthodox Church that teaches that our sin resulted in a fallen (mortal) nature and that from then on it is in our nature to die. If death did not have precedence then why did Christ have to die to render death powerless? Obviously no one could be saved before Christ, so it seems to me that death had quite a precedence on earth.
If Mary was incorrupt she would not have died. The Church (Eastern) believes she died, ergo she was not without corruption even if she was sinless because it was in her (mortal, fallen) nature to die. And when Jesus took the sins of the world, he died.
Mary is also the “Immaculate ark” of the New Covenant joined together with Christ in her womb.(not just some vessel as some protestants think)
Not in the early Church, certainly not before +Irenaeus. But +Ignatius at the turn of the first century called her a "suitable vessel." Surely he is not counted as a "Protestant" in the Latin Church. And +Justin Martyr, just 50 years later called her an "obedient virgin" and then proceeded to suggest that virgin Eve conceived the word of the serpent, while virign Mary conceived the Word of God! I can't begin to tell you how heretical this is!
+Irenaeus, forty years later (but in a Latin copy dating to the late 4th century; the Greek original id nonextant) called her advocata, suggesting intercession, an unfortunate term because in Greek it translates as Paraclete (the title of the Holy Spirit!). Origen (250 AD) is the first to call her Theotokos, but no one yet calls her immaculate.
It is only in the third century, mostly under Origen's influence, that Mary begins to be exalted (as in the Sub Tuum Praesidium, a 250 A.D prayer) and capable of "delivering [sic] us from dangers." The ever-growing eexaltation of Mary obviously grew only to be incorporated into the dogmatic deposit of the Church through the Ecumenical Councils, but not before that.