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To: PugetSoundSoldier
Of course not.

If I were claiming sola Scriptura I would have said so.

668 posted on 06/29/2009 3:23:41 PM PDT by Petronski (In Germany they came first for the Communists, And I didn't speak up because I wasn't a Communist...)
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To: Petronski
Why are you asking me?

Because until 1980 a Roman Catholic priest (the Latin Rite of Catholicism) could not be married. And then it changed, when there weren't enough priests - suddenly Lutheran and Anglican priests could become Roman Catholic priests.

And of course, they are expected to take a vow of celibacy. Which is, of course, not Biblical (a married man to be celibate).

This is a case of the Catechism directly conflicting with the Bible, and taking precedence over the Bible. Married priests who are not celibate is, in fact, Biblical. The tradition of the Church is otherwise, though, and that is what currently reigns supreme.

As far as sola scriptura, your own words state literally that the rest of John 6 and the entire Bible define the meaning. That is a direct reliance on sola scriptura whether you claim it or not.

Peace brother, it is clear we will never come to any understanding. I will call you a fellow Christian and brother in Christ; I hope you will do the same!

671 posted on 06/29/2009 3:29:29 PM PDT by PugetSoundSoldier
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