You are arguing YOUR understanding of what the various forms of “sabbath” means, without regarding the context and internal logic of the Scriptures.
John 19
14Now it was (S)the day of preparation for the Passover; it was about the [b](T)sixth hour And he said to the Jews, "Behold, (U)your King!"
31Then the Jews, because it was (AZ)the day of preparation, so that (BA)the bodies would not remain on the cross on the Sabbath (for that Sabbath was a (BB)high day), asked Pilate that their legs might be broken, and that they might be taken away.
42Therefore because of the Jewish day of (BT)preparation, since the tomb was (BU)nearby, they laid Jesus there.
John 19:14 says that “ the day of preparation for the Passover” Pilate handed Yeshua over to be killed.
John 19:31 says that “the Jews” on the SAME day (“”of preparation”) asked Pilate to remove His body from the cross.
John 19:42 says that, on that very same (“ day of (BT)preparation”) His body was laid in the tomb.
The text says that this ONE “day of preparation” was “for the Passover.” That notwithstanding, whether it was preparation for the Passover, OR for the next weekly Sabbath, (the Sabbath immediately before “Firstfruits,”) it is a preparation for the VERY NEXT DAY. Pick whichever Sabbath you think it is, the day Yeshua was crucified was a day of preparation for the immediately following day.
Either way, the day (Sabbath) AFTER this single “preparation day” could NOT be “the day after Passover“, Yeshua was removed from the cross, wrapped, and buried, before sundown. At sundown, began a Sabbath: either the Passover, when the seder was eaten after sundown, OR the ordinary weekly Sabbath following the Passover; the one immediately followed by “Firstfruits.” It cannot be “the day after Passover“.
The word means Sabbath. It does not mean week.
Paul used it, as an idiomatic expression” to mean a “week.” σαββάτων
Act 20:7 And upon the first [day] of the week, when the disciples came together to break bread, Paul preached unto them, ready to depart on the morrow; and continued his speech until midnight.
http://www.blueletterbible.org/Bible.cfm?b=Act&c=20&v=7&t=KJV#conc/7
1Cr 16:2 Upon the first [day] of the week let every one of you lay by him in store, as [God] hath prospered him, that there be no gatherings when I come.
http://www.blueletterbible.org/Bible.cfm?b=1Cr&c=16&v=1&t=KJV#conc/2It is not creditable to imagine that BOTH of these verses mean “ ...the first SABBATW between Passover that year and Pentecost.“ Neither could it mean other than an ordinary Sabbath in :Luke 4:16; Acts 3:14.
Your concept of the “meaning” of σαββάτων can prove NOTHING, since it is not in accord with the plain internal logic of the Scriptures.
DG
This is what you were responding to (post #885): "The Apostle, of course....was describing the First Sabbath of Unleavened Bread [Leviticus 23:6]....A SABBATW, the day after Passover [Leviticus 23:5]....a special Sabbath."
We know it was the Passover Preparation because John tells us that in [19:14] And it was the preparation of the passover, and about the sixth hour: and he saith unto the Jews, Behold your King! We also know that the feast of Unleavened comes after the Passover: [Leviticus 23:5-6] In the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the LORD's passover. And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the LORD: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread.
We also know that the First day of the Feast is a special Sabbath: [Leviticus 23:7] In the first day ye shall have an holy convocation: ye shall do no servile work therein. This is one of seven special Sabbaths in the year.
O.K. Here's the context: John is telling us that this day Our Lord has died (verse 30) was the preparation and he told us in (verse 14) that it was the Passover preparation. He goes on to tell us that the very next day would be a High Sabbath (verse 31). By reading Leviticus we can see that he is correct. The 14th of the month was the Passover and the 15th of the month is the first Sabbath. He refers to this Sabbath in the Greek as a SABBATW (verse 31) and he also calls it (same verse) a Sabbath day SABBATOU. Joseph is about to go to Pilate to ask for the body to be taken down before this Sabbath begins (verse 38). It is Wednesday afternoon at about 3:15/3:30 P.M. and Joseph wants to inter the body before sunset (verse 31).
Now.....do you have any question about this context before I go further?
Calendar for year of crucifixion 30 A.D.
Nisan 14 is Passover; Nisan 15 is First Sabbath; Nisan Sixteenth is the beginning of the Count of the Omer; Nisan 17 is the day of resurrection.....and the first SABBATWN between Passover and Pentecost.
The problem I think is what many people don't grasp. Passover is not a Sabbath. Passover is the preparation for the Sabbath. The Seder is eaten after the sundown of Passover i.e. after the Sabbath begins. The Seder is not eaten on Passover. The Lambs were killed on Passover. Our Savior was killed on Passover. [Leviticus 23:5-8] In the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the LORD's passover. And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the LORD: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread. In the first day ye shall have an holy convocation: ye shall do no servile work therein. But ye shall offer an offering made by fire unto the LORD seven days: in the seventh day is an holy convocation: ye shall do no servile work therein.
This is [Acts 20:7] using Young's Literal Translation: And on the first of the week, the disciples having been gathered together to break bread, Paul was discoursing to them, about to depart on the morrow, he was also continuing the discourse till midnight.
Let's look at the Greek: en de th mia twn sabbatwn sunhgmenwn twn maqhtwn tou klasai arton o pauloV dielegeto autoiV mellwn exienai th epaurion pareteinen te ton logon mecri mesonuktiou.
Here is [Luke 24:1] in the Greek: th de mia twn sabbatwn orqrou baqeos hlqon epi to mnhma ferousai a htoimasan arwmata kai tines sun autais
Young's Literal Translation for [Luke 24:1] And on the first of the sabbaths, at early dawn, they came to the tomb, bearing the spices they made ready, and certain others with them.
So.....in [Acts 20:7] Young's says that MIA TWN SABBATWN means "on the first of the week"....but the very same Greek words in [Luke 24:1] according to Young's means "on the first of the Sabbaths. Do we perhaps see a little Protestant bias here in Young's as well. Sure we do....as they are attempting to force their theology into what they believe actually happened. Nevertheless, Young's is still the best for attempting to faithfully translate ..literally.
As a side note....what has Paul just been doing? He has been celebrating Passover in Philippi (verse 6) and it is now five days later and they have come together on the first of the Sabbaths between Passover and Pentecost. It looks like Passover that year (the 14th) would have been on a Monday.
It is not creditable to imagine that BOTH of these verses mean “ ...the first SABBATW between Passover that year and Pentecost.“ Neither could it mean other than an ordinary Sabbath in :Luke 4:16; Acts 3:14
Well....again. What is Paul doing. [I Corinthians 16:1-4] And concerning the collection that is for the saints, as I directed to the assemblies of Galatia, so also ye -- do ye; on every first day of the week, let each one of you lay by him, treasuring up whatever he may have prospered, that when I may come then collections may not be made; and whenever I may come, whomsoever ye may approve, through letters, these I will send to carry your favour to Jerusalem; and if it be meet for me also to go, with me they shall go.
Paul is speaking of a collection to be taken up for the saints in Jerusalem and the key here is the Greek word "KATA" which begins the verse. Thayer's Lexicon describes it this way: A Preposition denoting motion or diffusion or direction from the higher to the lower. Here is the Greek: [I Corinthians 16:2] kata mian sabbatwn ekastoV umwn par eautw tiqetw qhsaurizwn o ti an euodwtai ina mh otan elqw tote logiai ginwntai
A literal translation would be: After the first of the Sabbaths, let each one of you beside himself put something aside, storing up whatever he may have prospered, in order that when I come then collections may not be made.
It is likely that Paul wrote this letter just before the arrival of the spring Holy Days. If that was the case....then that is why the term "First of the Sabbaths" is used....to tell the Corinthians when to start their offerings. As an aside.....this scripture has absolutely nothing to do with recognizing Sunday as any type of religious observance.