Sorry to tell ya this Doug, but so far you have only been able to substantiate your point by taking scripture passages out of context and adding a great deal of subjective input. References to the holydays in the NT are more based upon the Jewish calendar linkage to the Resurrection than it is to celebrating those ‘feasts’. I have shown that in Galatians and Acts that the observance of those feasts were not required by the Jewish leadership of the early Church, nor taught by Paul – on the contrary Paul taught that they were no longer necessary for the Christian.
As early as Act 20, believers were celebrating the Lord's supper on the Lords day (Acts 20:7).
It's not at all a given that this was a Sunday.
The Good News Translation:
(GNB) On Saturday evening we gathered together for the fellowship meal. Paul spoke to the people and kept on speaking until midnight, since he was going to leave the next day
Please be consistent here Doug, how were days reckoned? Sunset to sunset – therefore this was no longer the Sabbath but the next day. For it to have been the Sabbath, it would have required it to be Friday evening.
Modern King james: (MKJV) And on the first of the sabbaths, the disciples having been assembled to break bread, being about to depart on the morrow, Paul reasoned to them. And he continued his speech until midnight.
Most sabbath keepers would recognize this as a fellowship meal after sabbath services. A potluck.
Except this was not the “modern” era Doug, see reckoning the start of the Sabbath – Friday evening NOT Saturday evening. The phrase “first of the Sabbaths” is equivalent to the first day of the week (where the word here is the plural form sabbathow – indicating seven days)
Diego has done an excellent study on the "first of the sabbaths" or "one of the sabbaths". I'll ping him and let him explain further. But suffice to say that "break bread" doesn't always mean the Lords' supper.
Suffered through the gross twisting of scripture already, thanks. Suffice it to say his ‘explanation’ is seriously flawed and his premises built upon sand.
In Revelation it is called the Lord's day by John.
The only day the Lord claims as his is the sabbath and the holy days:
Sorry to break this to you again Doug, but your interpretation is not supported by the greek as well as usage throughout the bible. There is a significant difference between “the Lord’s Day” and “Day of the Lord” both in words and usage, and choosing a version that does not accurately translate the phrase only compounds your misunderstandings. In Revelation, John uses “kyriakos hēmera”. This is separate from the “Day of the Lord” -hemera tou kyriou which is a reference to the Judgement day. kyriake hemera is consistenly used in the NT to refer to Sunday, but there are no early witnesses to the use of kyriake hemera as a name for Sabbath. “kyriakos hēmera” is never used in reference to the day of judgment.
The events in Revelation describe the time period known as the day of the Lord.
“kyriakos hēmera, - the Lord’s day, not what has been erroneously translated as the Day of the Lord. A careful study of Revelation makes it clear that John did not want to get the two confused and besides, the phrase “Lord’s Day” was already in common use in the church by AD 90 as further indicated by the Didache (late 1st Century) and Justin.
A Torah-observant Jew as was John Thus the L-rd's day would be Shabbat Review the Septuagint,
shalom b'SHEM Yah'shua HaMashiach Adonai
YHvH is called L-rd in the Septuagint.
would be referring to YHvH as L-rd.
not the Pagan day of the sun.
You're theorized this, but you've not shown it. I presented historical evidence that showed Christians still keeping the Lord's holy days and sabbaths more than 3 centuries after Christ died. I've showed you biblical evidence of Paul actually commanding followers to keep the holy days. I've showed biblical evidence of Paul observing other feast days. Even the first church was formed on one of God's holy days. Christ was killed on one of God's holy days.
And here's the kicker: God's holy days will be observed when the Lord returns to earth:
Zec 14:16 And it shall come to pass, that every one that is left of all the nations which came against Jerusalem shall even go up from year to year to worship the King, the LORD of hosts, and to keep the feast of tabernacles.
Zec 14:17 And it shall be, that whoso will not come up of all the families of the earth unto Jerusalem to worship the King, the LORD of hosts, even upon them shall be no rain.
Zec 14:18 And if the family of Egypt go not up, and come not, that have no rain; there shall be the plague, wherewith the LORD will smite the heathen that come not up to keep the feast of tabernacles.
Zec 14:19 This shall be the punishment of Egypt, and the punishment of all nations that come not up to keep the feast of tabernacles.
God's holy days are OUTSIDE of the covenant. They were given BEFORE the old covenant and they are observed AFTER the new covenant. They are guarded and celebrated today by those who wish to honor and obey the Lord.
Most sabbath keepers would recognize this as a fellowship meal after sabbath services. A potluck. Except this was not the “modern” era Doug, see reckoning the start of the Sabbath – Friday evening NOT Saturday evening. The phrase “first of the Sabbaths” is equivalent to the first day of the week (where the word here is the plural form sabbathow – indicating seven days)
I trust you've already read Diego's excellent response to this.
A careful study of Revelation makes it clear that John did not want to get the two confused and besides, the phrase “Lord’s Day” was already in common use in the church by AD 90 as further indicated by the Didache (late 1st Century) and Justin.
If "common use" means two references that don't actually say "kyriake hemera" then you're right. In the Didache the phrase "kyriake de kyriou" (Lord's of the Lord) is used. Some have latched onto this in order to mistranslate John.
When did Justin make the reference?