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If you read the gen 1-2 in the original language and the original intent then there is room for the gap theory.

I don't read ancient Hebrew so please paraphrase as well as tell me the original intent.

[guitarplayer1953]

From what I've been able to dig up so to say is that in the original

, "Arthur C. Custance, who has written an excellent book in the theory's defense, traces it to the certain early Jewish writers,...who even put a 'rebhia' mark in the Masoretic text of the Old Testament to let the reader know there is a break in the narrative between v1 and v 2..

Here is Mr Custance's page on the Masoretic text. http://www.creationdays.dk/withoutformandvoid/Articles.php