Correct me if I'm wrong, but was it not Pelagius who used Mary as an example of pre-fall Adam humanity? Was he not the first using this assertion?
Among the extant patristic writings, Mary as second Eve is first described by St. Justin Martyr in 2c:
He became man by the Virgin, in order that the disobedience which proceeded from the serpent might receive its destruction in the same manner in which it derived its origin. For Eve, who was a virgin and undefiled, having conceived the word of the serpent, brought forth disobedience and death. But the Virgin Mary received faith and joy, when the angel Gabriel announced the good tidings to her that the Spirit of the Lord would come upon her, and the power of the Highest would overshadow her: wherefore also the Holy Thing begotten of her is the Son of God; and she replied, 'Be it unto me according to your word.' Luke 1:38 And by her has He been born, to whom we have proved so many Scriptures refer, and by whom God destroys both the serpent and those angels and men who are like him; but works deliverance from death to those who repent of their wickedness and believe upon Him.
Certainly makes sense. The RCC has corrupted the mother of Jesus into the most Pelagian of all human beings. So good and pure and super-human that the RCC says she was born without sin and was assumed bodily into heaven. The lie is so deep the RCC even has Christ obeying Mary's every directive because she is just that good.