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To: dangus
The fact that #9 was responded to after I commented that no-one had responded to it somehow means I was inaccurate?

No, the fact that 9 was responded to BEFORE you commented made your comment inaccurate.

69 posted on 07/08/2008 7:41:25 PM PDT by PAR35
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To: PAR35

>>No, the fact that 9 was responded to BEFORE you commented made your comment inaccurate. <<

Let’s see the message I first cc’d Gamecock to:

>> Thank you, Sara, but isn’t it interesting that debate rages on, without anyone responding to those posts? (except those with kind words to affirm them.) <<

So you see, in context, my assertion that no-one had responded to them was in the sense of rebutting them. What’s amazing is that my initial posts completely destroyed the notion of sola fides. But you don’t rebut those posts, you nitpick the semantics later comparably insignificant comments. Does that make you feel validated? Is there some sort of internal ad-hominem that you can reassure yourself with that somehow you’ve invalidated my point because you found some inane point to squabble with me over?

Hey, I’ll tell you what: I obviously admit referring to #9 and #10 was wrong, since I meant to refer to #8 and #9. Now, do you have a substantive point to discuss?


73 posted on 07/08/2008 8:07:02 PM PDT by dangus
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