“If the commandments spoken by the very Mouth of G-d Himself are vain and meaningless (and an insult to the Holiness of G-d) then what are we to think of the traditional rituals of chr*stianity that (unlike those of the Torah) are nowhere to be found in the Bible?”
I am coming in late here but would like to briefly address this issue. For the record, i do not support extra-Biblical, “Christianized” pagan rituals, nor making a body of extra Biblical revelation equal to it, but it is clear that the New Testament teaches us we are to keep the O.T. moral commands of God, usually literally but always according to their holy intent. The Bible makes different classes of laws evident (http://peacebyjesus.witnesstoday.org/homosexual_refuted.html#aspect),But it also makes it evident that a certain class of laws are abbrogated.
9 out of the 10 commands of Ex. 20 are reiterated under the New Covenant, as well as numerous other basic moral laws, while culturally applied laws are applicable in intent, but not one of the typological laws are reiterated, and which laws are defined under the New Covenant as those relating to annual observance of Jewish “observe days, and months, and times, and years” (Gal 4:10), “meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days” (Col. 2:16), “meats and drinks, and divers washings, and carnal ordinances, imposed on them until the time of reformation” (Heb. 9:10).
Thus we have consistent declarations such as “I know, and am persuaded by the Lord Jesus, that there is nothing unclean of itself: but to him that esteemeth any thing to be unclean, to him it is unclean” (Rom 14:14). “For every creature of God is good, and nothing to be refused, if it be received with thanksgiving: For it is sanctified by the word of God and prayer.” (1 Tim. 4:4, 5; cf. Acts 10:9-16).
(Rom 2:29) “But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.”
These things foreshadowed Christ and N.T. realities (http://peacebyjesus.witnesstoday.org/lawandgrace.html), which are manifest under the prophesied New Covenant, which is distinctly declared to be “Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the LORD” (Jer 31:32).
This is not to say that typological laws have no efficacy, but while it may not be a sin to eat pork, it would not glorify God (1 Cor. 10:31) to eat a diet that is overall unhealthy, etc. We are to be Spirit controlled in all things, and while we have liberty in these areas, it is constrained by love for God and others.
The term “not under the law” is in regards to a means of salvation, in which the true believer in the “gospel of the grace of God” (Act 20:24), gains by effectual faith what the law promised only perfect obedience (Gal. 3). But as one who is “washed, sanctified, and justified in the name of the Lord Jesus, and by the Spirit of our God (1Cor. 6:11), we are both rightly inspired and enabled to walk in newness of live, so that “That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.” (Rom 8:4). Yet i feel i come much short in that.
That we are to obey the moral law is abundantly clear. Thus idolaters, fornicators, etc. will still end up in the Lake of Fire (1 Cor. 6:9, 10; Rv. 21:6, 27). Assurance of salvation is given in 1 Jn. 5:13, after 4 chapters delineating Christian faith.
This particular argument is not with people such as yourself who are more-or-less consistent when it comes to extra-Biblical ceremonials, rituals, traditions, etc. It is with those who sound like Martin Luther when it comes to the Torah but then turn around and defend their own replacement "torah" with the same arguments a devout Jew would use to defend the Torah and Talmud (not 100% identical, but you get my meaning).