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you are telling me that in the space between the bolded words that the audience changes from all believers to the Apostles only???

The Body of Christ is given for apostles and also for all men of faith: I cited the similar scripture in the post you are responding to. The commandment to "do it" refers not to eating of the body (that is given in v.17) but to offering it "in commemoration", -- something that lay in the future at the moment. Yes, that is plain reading and paying attention to what is written.

I'm sure that tells you NOTHING.

The statement form a pharisee in Mark 2 indeed does not speak to whether the Apostles could forgive sins on the charge of Christ.

Two examples of anti-scriptural holdings are in this post alone

They are examples of your lack of understanding of the scripture.

Huh? If that is the case then here is the passage again with what appears to be the Catholic interpretation in bolded parenthesis:

17 And having taken the chalice, he gave thanks, and said: Take, and divide it among you: (Christ takes the chalice and gives thanks for the bread AND the wine NOW. They eat and drink NOW) 18 For I say to you, that I will not drink of the fruit of the vine (We'll ignore that it makes no sense to say "For" here if they just ate the bread. The Eucharist is complete NOW.), till the kingdom of God come. 19 And taking bread (We'll ignore that this is in the same form as for the wine.) , he gave thanks (We'll ignore that this must be a totally different sort of thanks because the ceremony is already complete, EVEN THOUGH the language is IDENTICAL), and brake; and gave to them, saying: This is my body, which is given for you. Do this for a commemoration of me.(We'll ignore that it makes no sense whatsoever to give instructions ONLY for the bread and not the wine.)

No, the plain reading is that He gave thanks for the wine and then they took it. Then He gave thanks for the bread and then they ate it. The instruction is for all believers to partake of the Supper. Then we wouldn't have to ignore anything. :)

The statement from a pharisee in Mark 2 indeed does not speak to whether the Apostles could forgive sins on the charge of Christ.

So the question "Who can forgive sins but God alone?" REALLY means "Who other than Roman Catholic clergy can forgive sins but God alone?". Is that what you are saying? I mean, this does sound like a perfectly typical plain meaning interpretation of the Church, but I just wanted to make sure I had it right. :)