Of course, the point of this statement of Christ was to assert His divinity.
But somehow, God bestows Good on human beings, in order for them to live eternally with Him.
God does not bestow "Good" on human beings in the sense of giving them the capacity for sinless righteousness, nor is it righteous works which allow us to live eternally with Him.
God the Father bestowed teaching authority on the man Jesus.
The phrasing of this doesn't communicate the fact that Jesus was fully God as well as fully man.
He could, and we believe He did - “He who hears you, hears Me.” - bestow authoritative teaching authority on others.
When we preach His words, then yes, those who hear us hear Him. When we depart from His words into the realm of our fallible human opinions and reasoning, we cannot claim to speak with His authority.
As an example, why believe anything taught by St. Paul, unless you believe his teaching authority came from God. Why believe anything written by St. Matthew, St. Mark, St. Luke, St. John ...?
Because Paul, Matthew, Mark, Luke, John, and the other authors of scripture wrote through divine inspiration. The words they wrote under the inspiration of God are infallible, but they as individuals were not infallible otherwise. Furthermore, all of what they wrote through God's inspiration is consistent and in agreement - it does not contradict itself or reflect a change in view over time.
You seem to argue that God does not delegate His Own power - correct? But what of the keys of binding and loosing? How else do you explain that but the conferring of authority from God?
Because Paul, Matthew, Mark, Luke, John, and the other authors of scripture wrote through divine inspiration. The words they wrote under the inspiration of God are infallible, but they as individuals were not infallible otherwise. Furthermore, all of what they wrote through God's inspiration is consistent and in agreement - it does not contradict itself or reflect a change in view over time.
So the inspiration of God can be conferred on men when they are teaching via the written word? But, God cannot confer that same infallibility when another man teaches after the death of the Apostles? And I question your last sentence - what teaching of the Church do you believe has contradicted itself, changed over time, or is inconsistent with Holy Scripture and Tradition?