Rom 3:
28
For we consider that a person is justified by faith apart from works of the law.
Martin Luther added ‘alone’ after faith, and interpreted works of the (Mosaic) law (such as diet, circumcision etc) as meaning ‘good works’.
Changes the entire meaning; no wonder some generations appear to have been seriously misled.
Hundreds of millions of souls misled by Luther and his iconoclastic successors.
I’ve always felt that a definition of “good works” helps in discussions of this sort. Are good works, keeping the laws, partaking of sacraments, baptism, helping someone, etc. Or are all these “good works”?
Becky
I have posted Romans 3:28 from a variety of Protestant and Catholic Bibles and can find no significant difference.
ROMANS 3:28
(RSV) For we hold that a man is justified by faith apart from works of law.
(IGNATIUS) For we hold that a man is justified by faith apart from works of law
(KJV) Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.
(NAB) For we consider that a person is justified by faith apart from works of the law.
(DOUAY-RHEIMS) For we account a man to be justified by faith, without the works of the law
(NAS) For F63 we R151 maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of F64 the Law.
(ASV) We reckon therefore that a man is justified by faith apart from the works of the law.
What's your beef?