Of course He did--by the letter of the Law. But Jesus correctly followed the spirit of the Law by dishonoring her, as He did when He broke the Sabbath.
How was disrespecting her wishes in front of a crowd following the spirit of “honour thy father and thy mother?” What higher point would have been made by that?
Similarly, what rabbi in Talmud has ever argued that the Shammaite prohibition against healing on the Sabbath was the unianimous interpretation of the Law?
His violations of Torah must have been apparent rather than actual in order for His sacrifice to have been unspotted.