Please continue pinging me in this discussion. I would love to see the Biblical proof that Mary was sinless.
Here is the response I got in 11283:
Petronski: Luk 1:28 And the angel being come in, said unto her: Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.
I don't know, Petronski, I really don't see how this shows sinlessness, since by implication no other human (who was not also a deity) in history was ever "full of grace". That would mean David was not full of grace even though he was a man after God's own heart. There are countless other examples. Since my Bible doesn't use that term in Luke 1:28 (in fact the only one in my Bible being described that way is Christ Himself [John 1:14]), does your Bible elsewhere explain that "full of grace" means sinlessness?
Since an argument could be made that the Greek root words in Luke 1:28 and John 1:14 are similar I suppose the intent must be to draw a direct comparison of equality on this issue between Mary and Christ for this claim to hold. Jesus was sinless, and likewise Mary was sinless and was equal with Christ in this regard, AS OPPOSED to the rest of humanity. Then all the "Co-" words can start flowing.