Rev 12 doesn’t mention Mary or any assumption of Mary.....at all. It does mention the child (Jesus) being caught up to the throne of heaven. It does mention the nation going into the wilderness due to persecution.
Luke 1:28 says absolutely nothing about any assumption or immaculate conception. The words don’t come up, the concept doesn’t come up, nothing about it at all comes up.
I’ve read Hahn on this. He is so totally unconvincing that I’m concerned for the viability of his rationality.
LOL. And you are concerned about someone else's rationality? Who do you think mother of Christ is?
Luke 1:28 says absolutely nothing about any assumption or immaculate conception.
Fullness of grace in the past tense (kecharitomeneh) means Mary had been full of grace prior to the Annunciation. One can speculate whether she was filled with grace at some other than her conception point, but then THAT would be a counterscriptural speculation.