In post 185, you wrote: "You cited four passages from Scripture. None of them say 'filled with grace.'"
I maintain the meaning of all those verses is clear -- believers have been filled with the grace of God by the indwelling Holy Spirit.
You deny that fact.
Or are you just saying those four verses deny that fact, but that this truth is found in other verses of Scripture, in which case I would be happy to include those verses with the four I mentioned?
I knew you were twisting my words, but I did not know how.
My statement in 185 (”You cited four passages from Scripture. None of them say ‘filled with grace.’”) is undeniable. Neither is the phrase “filled with grace” used in those passages nor is the word “Kecharitomene” used in the original Greek.
Recall that your post with the four bible passages was a challenge in #132 to “Please quote even one other line where any biblical figure Mary were called Full of Grace, let alone by an angel.”
You did not, and I pointed that out.
If you want to skate past that by changing the challenge to “the meaning of all those verses,” well, I suppose in doing so admit the poverty of your original response to the challenge.