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To: MarkBsnr
[***Wikipedia, the most accurate reference text known to man. Typical, always attack the source when you can’t deal with the facts. *** ]

Wikipedia is written by anonymous sources who submit articles. Facts taken from wiki are suspect at best. I’d rely on some other sources.

I have, note for example Schaff.

And he supports what I said regarding the power of the RCC in the Middle ages aka, Dark Ages.

[ ***Latin was not the common people’s language for hundreds of years before the 1600s. It was only used by the intellectuals. *** ]

Try to follow the bouncing ball. Latin was the universal language of communication until it was replaced by French.

And try keeping focused on the issue, which was the language of the common people, which was not Latin.

[ ***And the reason English replaced all of the languages of the world as the major language was the influence of the King James Bible spreading throughout the British Empire. *** ]

English replaced French as the univeral world language when the British Empire became the greatest empire in the world. There was some competition from the Spanish, Portuguese, German, Dutch and Russian empires. But the biggest reason was not the KJV; it was the military one. English was the language of the conquerors, just as Latin was the language of the Romans.

That's correct, and where the British Empire took over, the Bible followed and literacy with it.

1,383 posted on 06/03/2008 2:46:09 AM PDT by fortheDeclaration ("Our constitution was made only for a moral and religious people".-John Adams)
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To: fortheDeclaration

***Wikipedia is written by anonymous sources who submit articles. Facts taken from wiki are suspect at best. I’d rely on some other sources.

I have, note for example Schaff.

And he supports what I said regarding the power of the RCC in the Middle ages aka, Dark Ages. ***

So does that other purulent anti Catholic bigot Ian Paisley.

***And try keeping focused on the issue, which was the language of the common people, which was not Latin. ***

The common people couldn’t read. Focus, focus.

***That’s correct, and where the British Empire took over, the Bible followed and literacy with it.***

It was not strict cause and effect and the time span was several hundred years. Literacy in 1600s England - at the time when the Empire and wealth were flourishing was only 30% for men and 10% for women.

Rather, wealth and leisure were increasing and only those in history up until recently who were literate were those with the wealth and leisure to be able to pursue it.


1,387 posted on 06/03/2008 2:55:25 PM PDT by MarkBsnr ( I would not believe in the Gospel if the authority of the Catholic Church did not move me to do so.)
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