To: fortheDeclaration
English was not the default language of educated England after the Norman conquests until about 1350. French, Anglo-Norman and Latin were the languages of the literate instead.
Why would one create a translation into another language when anyone who could read the English could also read the extant Latin or French translations?
This only motive was to inject one’s own words into the text. This is why the vernaculars were usually the product of heretics, and were viewed with just suspicion by the authorities, both ecclesial and temporal.
1,203 posted on
05/14/2008 9:57:51 AM PDT by
Philo-Junius
(One precedent creates another. They soon accumulate and constitute law.)
To: Philo-Junius
English was not the default language of educated England after the Norman conquests until about 1350. French, Anglo-Norman and Latin were the languages of the literate instead. Why would one create a translation into another language when anyone who could read the English could also read the extant Latin or French translations? This only motive was to inject ones own words into the text. This is why the vernaculars were usually the product of heretics, and were viewed with just suspicion by the authorities, both ecclesial and temporal. Vernaculars- you mean Bibles the average person could read?
Those words were not interjected into the text, they represented words that the average person could understand.
Frankly,I really have no interest in the reasoning a tyrant, either religious or secular, uses to justify his actions.
1,214 posted on
05/14/2008 11:18:27 PM PDT by
fortheDeclaration
("Our constitution was made only for a moral and religious people".-John Adams)
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