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To: Diego1618; Just mythoughts
[Acts 20:6] And we sailed away from Philippi after the days of unleavened bread, and came unto them to Troas in five days; where we abode seven days. Luke....here is saying, quite succinctly.....that he and Paul are still marking time by Passover. In verse 16 he explains that Paul is attempting to get to Jerusalem for observance of another "Jewish" holiday (Shavuot)! This is quite a few years after the resurrection. Why would the Apostles still be referring to "Jewish" holidays if they were indeed....not still observing them?

What's also remarkable about this is that it's not a way to mark a specific time of year. For example, if we marked time by saying "around Christmas time" then everyone would automatically know that it's somewhere around December 25th not matter what year or time. If we were to say, it's around unleavened bread, then we would HAVE to know when unleavened bread occurs for that specific year. You could be referring to anytime between late March and late April depending on the year. So in referring to the days of unleavened bread, it was assumed by the author that people would know the time frame because they all KNEW when God's holy days were observed.

32 posted on 04/12/2008 2:11:18 AM PDT by DouglasKC
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To: XeniaSt

ping


33 posted on 04/12/2008 7:10:27 AM PDT by DouglasKC
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