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To: suzyjaruki

No, that is your conclusion. You say that “all” means literal “all”. I simply demonstrate its absurdity.

There is no debate that Christ is the source of all righteousness, of Mary, or anyone else, in whatever degree they have it.


963 posted on 04/08/2008 11:33:47 AM PDT by annalex (http://www.catecheticsonline.com/CatenaAurea.php)
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To: annalex
My objection to wandering away from what a text says by reading between the lines and inserting things that are not there does not make me a literalist. However, IMO the "all" in Romans means all men (born in sin) and that cannot include Jesus Christ who is God-Man (born of the Holy Spirit without sin).

Why was Jesus born of the Holy Spirit without sin? Why was it necessary for Him to be unique?

964 posted on 04/08/2008 11:46:09 AM PDT by suzyjaruki (Why?)
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