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I missed to include the reply to your first statement about Satan misquoting the Scriptures. I am sure you wondered what happened...I also forgo to make a courtesy ping to the rest of the people onyour ping list. Apologies.

You wrote in 6677: Well, if you remember, MY personal stance has always been that satan has only ever MISquoted the Bible, and to a substantive degree

We have already mentioned Matthew attributing a quote to Jeremiah when it was really from Zachariah.

In Ephesians (4:8) Paul misquotes (intentionally?) Ps.68:18, which says: "Thou hast ascended on high, thou hast led captivity captive: thou hast received gifts for men." And Paul says gave .

In Romans 9:33 (on the left) he quotes from Isaiah 28:16 (on the right). Here are the two quotes:

As it is written, Behold, I lay in Sion a stumblingstone and rock of offence: and whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed [KJV]

"See, I lay in Zion a stone that causes men to stumble and a rock that makes them fall, and the one who trusts in him will never be put to shame [NIV]

Therefore thus saith the L-rd GOD: Behold, I lay in Zion for a foundation a stone, a tried stone, a costly corner-stone of sure foundation; he that believeth shall not make haste [Tanakh, MT]

Therefore thus says the Lord, even the Lord, "Behold, I lay for the foundations of Zion a costly stone, a choice cornerstone and precious, for its foundations; and he that believes on Him shall by no means be ashamed. {Septuagint, LXX]

I think the differences are quite telling.

In Romans 10:8 Paul changes the meaning to suit his gospel of faith alone and no works by misquoting Deut. 30:14

Rom 10:8

Deut 30:14

But what saith it? The word is nigh thee, even in thy mouth, and in thy heart: that is, the word of faith, which we preach; [KJV]

But the word is very nigh unto thee, in thy mouth, and in thy heart, that thou mayest do it. [Tanakh, MT]

The word is very near you, in your mouth, and in your heart, and in your hands, to do it. [Septuagint, LXX]

This is something that I have been trying to bring to everyone's attention: Paul was preaching to Bereans in this case, where the rabbis would have caught his error, because they checked on him. He was preaching to ignorant Romans and Greeks who knew nothing of the Hebrew scriptures and couldn't read them. So, any of the authors could have misqouted anything they wanted in order to make a "sales pitch." This is an example of how Paul manipulated the Torah of all parts of the Bible to make it "fit" his newly invented faith-alone theology.

Matthew (13:35) does something very similar and takes the license to change (i.e. misquote) Psalm 78:2

Mat 13:35

Ps. 78:2

That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophet, saying, I will open my mouth in parables; I will utter things which have been kept secret from the foundation of the world [KJV]

I will open my mouth with a parable; I will utter dark sayings concerning days of old. That which we have heard and known, and our fathers have told us. [Tanakh, v 2-3]

I will open my mouth in parables; I will utter dark sayings which have been from the beginning. All which we have heard and known, and our fathers have declared to us. [Sedptuagint, v. 2-3

Clearly, by leaving out verse 3, Matthew creates a completely different meaning of the Psalm he (mis)quotes. He blends verse 2 and 3 into one intentional fabrication with a different menaing.

Of course we can always blame these on "scribal" errors, which is very possible, but nevertheless no less serious in misleading a private interpretation to conclude soemthing that was not in the original text. This, we cannot assume that the integrity of the original texts have been preserved without error.

In Ephesians (4:8) Paul misquotes (intentionally?) Ps.68:18, which says: "Thou hast ascended on high, thou hast led captivity captive: thou hast received gifts for men." And Paul says gave.

I don't know how to discuss these types of issues with you since your presupposition is that the Bible is wrong and corrupt. No matter what explanations I could find, I don't think it would make any difference. For example, you say "This is an example of how Paul manipulated the Torah of all parts of the Bible to make it "fit" his newly invented faith-alone theology." If this is what you really believe then your faith should be the LAST to be based on the Apostles and what they taught. That is a contradiction.

Of course we can always blame these on "scribal" errors, which is very possible, but nevertheless no less serious in misleading a private interpretation to conclude something that was not in the original text. This, we cannot assume that the integrity of the original texts have been preserved without error.

The private interpretation is in assuming that the reference texts are incompatible with the NT texts. If we assume flawed or evil motives on the parts of the authors and God, then naturally there will be perceived flawed or evil results.