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To: HarleyD; Forest Keeper; kosta50; Kolokotronis

***It is given to Him to convict the world of sin, righteousness and judgment. We are instruments if He chooses to use us but if not we are still commanded to share the good news.***

I’d like to know how the programming is inputted; and I still don’t get why the Good News is required to be preached to the Reformed non elect except as possibly a way for personal wealth.

***Everyone benefits from God’s grace. By right we should all have been exterminated long ago. Yet God is long suffering. So He causes the sun to shine on the just and unjust and provides air to breathe for those who would curse His name as well as praise it.***

How do the Reformed non elect benefit from God’s grace? I thought that the Reformed position was that they couldn’t receive it. If nobody preached the Gospel to these unfortunates, then is God going to remove sun and air from them? Is that why you have to do it?

I’m not getting it and I seem to be getting it less with each response.

***It is my strong belief (and I think this is evidence in scripture with the rich man and Lazarus) that there are simply some who would rather face the torment of hell then to live eternity glorifying God.***

You just may swim the Tiber yet. That is the most Catholic thing you’ve said in a long time. Unless you wanna head east with brothers Kolo and kosta, that is.

If you don’t mind, I’d like to ask them anyway what the original Greek says in Rom 1:21. I thought that the line meant that they knew of God and that they had had the Good News of Jesus preached to them and were baptized and then chose not to practice the faith.


4,514 posted on 03/27/2008 1:55:55 PM PDT by MarkBsnr ( I would not believe in the Gospel if the authority of the Catholic Church did not move me to do so.)
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To: MarkBsnr; Forest Keeper; kosta50; Kolokotronis
I’d like to know how the programming is inputted

I still don’t get why the Good News is required to be preached to the Reformed non elect

How do the Reformed non elect benefit from God’s grace?

I’m not getting it and I seem to be getting it less with each response.

You just may swim the Tiber yet. That is the most Catholic thing you’ve said in a long time.
4,515 posted on 03/27/2008 2:55:50 PM PDT by HarleyD
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To: MarkBsnr; HarleyD; Forest Keeper; Kolokotronis
If you don’t mind, I’d like to ask them anyway what the original Greek says in Rom 1:21. I thought that the line meant that they knew of God

Well, Kolo is a better source to tap, but ginosko does not necessarily mean knowing in the sense the Protestants claim. It certainly does mean, among other things, that we may know of something, and not that we know it.

If you have a rudimentary knowledge of the French language, do you "know" French? Some people would be arrogant enough to say yes. It all depends how high do we raise the bar and on the context of what's said or written.

In verse 19, +Paul says "because that which is known about or of God (theou) is evident within them." In the context of his writing, he speaks of knowing of God through the veidence of Creation, the way we know that if we see a house there must be a builder who raised it. But that does not mean we know the builder!

The point he was making is that even though people are aware that God created the world, based on the veidence of creation, some people still don't honor God. There is nothing in his writing here that suggests we know God inside and out.

The closest to knowing God is through Christ in the Gospels.

4,531 posted on 03/28/2008 5:46:55 AM PDT by kosta50 (Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
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