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To: kosta50; Alamo-Girl; MarkBsnr; stfassisi; blue-duncan; Kolokotronis; hosepipe; Dr. Eckleburg
Kosta: The term itself, the Son of Man, the Son of God, and the Elect One, in Judaism is never associated with God. Jewish messiah is human, form the the tribe of Judah, of davidic genealogy, a favorite of God, but not divine.

FK: But how can that be when the Gospels say: ...

Kosta: I wrote a verifiable fact about Judaism, namely what Judaism believes about the messiah. Are you saying that's not what they believe?

If you say that's what they believe today, that's fine. I'm sure many back then also believed it. I'm saying that couldn't have been the correct faith of the time because none could have been righteous in actively denying Christ. Yet, we are plainly told in the OT that some WERE righteous. Therefore, those who were righteous could not have believed as you say Judaism taught.

Luke 24:44 : He said to them, "This is what I told you while I was still with you: Everything must be fulfilled that is written about me in the Law of Moses, the Prophets and the Psalms."

Which prophesy would that be, FK?

Well, all of 'em. :) Maybe I don't understand what you mean, but as you know the OT is littered with Messianic prophecies. I'm sure I could whip up a list of them if you like.

John 5:45-47 : 45 "But do not think I will accuse you before the Father. Your accuser is Moses, on whom your hopes are set. 46 If you believed Moses, you would believe me, for he wrote about me. 47 But since you do not believe what he wrote, how are you going to believe what I say?"

I am simply going to ask you to show me where Moses actually writes about Christ (I imagine His death and suffering), as John claims.

I may as well go ahead and link a list. There are lots of them out there. This one looked OK. It has about 23 examples from Moses: Fulfilled Messianic Prophecies .

3,496 posted on 03/05/2008 2:43:31 PM PST by Forest Keeper (It is a joy to me to know that God had my number, before He created numbers.)
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To: Forest Keeper; kosta50
“Yet, we are plainly told in the OT that some WERE righteous. Therefore, those who were righteous could not have believed as you say Judaism taught.”

Why do you say this? The fact that we disagree on the what precisely The Church is, are you saying that no one who does not know Christ can be Righteous? Does that mean that the OT Righteous "knew" Christ? That seems rather presumptuous frankly. Perhaps I am misunderstanding you?

3,499 posted on 03/05/2008 3:14:18 PM PST by Kolokotronis (Christ is Risen, and you, o death, are annihilated!)
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