“How can this be justified? This happened down through the centuries, and not just at the hands of Roman Catholics but Protestants as well. Lord have mercy on us.”
In the context of an Anglo-Saxon, post Enlightenment society, it cannot be except as a theoretical construct. In other societies, societies which were/are arguably far holier, far more likely to foster theosis in its citizens than ours, it was/is not only acceptable, it was expected and required for the good of the society and individuals.
But were/are they? Or did forcefully eliminating heretical teachings just give them that appearance? (I admit I do not know the answer to this.) We confess that God does not force us to come to Him, but as far as I can tell that's exactly what was attempted: "The authorities intended to make the reading of such writings simply impossible."