Kosta: But if you think about it, either God was leading the Jews into failure, knowingly, or God allowed the Jews to fail, but out of His goodness continued to offer them chances to repent.
FK: The idea that God would continue to offer chances to those who failed, after HE failed, is solely an Apostolic one (if it is even that).
It is not "Apostolic." Allowing failure based on our choices is not God's failure.
God chose from among all the people living in OT times, just as He chose from among all people today. To some He will show mercy and to others He will not. There is no "failure" in that.
There is no Christ in it either.
Kosta: And how do we reconcile that Christ sent His disciples to minister to the twelve tribes of Israel knowing that they would fail?!
FK: Well, what would you have considered their "success"?
Well, given that it wasn't meant for the tribes of Israel to accept them, you call that success? Buy why send them there?
but I infer from all of your recent comments that if the Gospels had immediately spread like wildfire among the Jews, and been accepted, then the Gentiles would have been locked out forever
There is nothing in the NT that says Christ came because of the Gentiles.
"I was sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel."[Mat 15:24]
Yeah, only. How much clearer can that be? Did the OT say anywhere that the messiah was going to come to save the Gentiles? Or to teach them (the OT) God's justice?
However, since God ALWAYS intended to reach the Gentiles en mass, then what you call the failure of the Jews I would call the success of God
And that's based on what? So, next time you see a homeless person why don't you congratulate him?
There is no Christ in it either.
Well, I know that you know that I was paraphrasing what you consider to be "scripture". Here Paul was quoting from Ex. 33:19 :
Rom 9:14-18 : 14 What then shall we say? Is God unjust? Not at all! 15 For he says to Moses, "I will have mercy on whom I have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I have compassion." 16 It does not, therefore, depend on man's desire or effort, but on God's mercy. 17 For the Scripture says to Pharaoh: "I raised you up for this very purpose, that I might display my power in you and that my name might be proclaimed in all the earth." 18 Therefore God has mercy on whom he wants to have mercy, and he hardens whom he wants to harden.
So, to get rid of this you have to say that both Paul and Exodus were wrong.
There is nothing in the NT that says Christ came because of the Gentiles. "I was sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel."[Mat 15:24] Yeah, only. How much clearer can that be?
It can be no clearer. Just as your verse says, Christ came for His sheep. You seem to be stuck on the notion that only Jews by birth can be sheep. The NT lays waste to that notion through Paul. In addition, we have a Gospel passage that I have quoted often recently:
John 10:27-30 : 27 My sheep listen to my voice; I know them, and they follow me. 28 I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish; no one can snatch them out of my hand. 29 My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all; no one can snatch them out of my Father's hand. 30 I and the Father are one."
This quote was said BEFORE your alleged reorganization of Christianity to include Gentiles. Therefore, by your reasoning, Jesus only was talking about ALL lost Jews here. But we know that not all Jews followed Him, so this would make Jesus a liar. So obviously, your logic does not work. OTOH, if the sheep Jesus was speaking of included Gentiles and meant all of God's children from whatever race, (as Paul said), then everything fits and makes sense. As you said: "How much clearer can that be?" :)
Did the OT say anywhere that the messiah was going to come to save the Gentiles?
Yes:
Isa 53:12 : 12 Therefore I will give him a portion among the great, and he will divide the spoils with the strong, because he poured out his life unto death, and was numbered with the transgressors. For he bore the sin of many, and made intercession for the transgressors.
If the Gentiles are not among the transgressors, then all of us are doomed.
FK: "However, since God ALWAYS intended to reach the Gentiles en mass, then what you call the failure of the Jews I would call the success of God."
And that's based on what? So, next time you see a homeless person why don't you congratulate him?
I may not be following you, but it's based on the fact that we know that Gentiles are saved. If God changed His mind we would know Him to be flawed, and He could not be omniscient.
I have no idea why I would want to congratulate a homeless person or what that would have to do with salvation.