I don’t think that all of you are confused, just the ones with a hard-core futurist mindset or poor reading skills.
If Satan [the strong man] was not bound until sometime after the Book of Revelation was written, then just how was it possible for his house to be plundered by all those saints in the early church????
I’m not sure where you got this timing from in any of my comments. I’ll let you point it out so I can help correct your misunderstanding.
Well then just exactly when was the strong man bound???