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To: topcat54; Lord_Calvinus; fortheDeclaration
Or how can one enter a strong man's house and plunder his goods, unless he first binds the strong man? And then he will plunder his house.

So just when was the strong man bound??? in 30 AD??? But John's Revelation was not written until 96 AD and the binding of Satan was still yet future at that time. So was there no plundering going on between 30 and 96 AD????

Can you exegeters help us here??? Your exegeting has us so confused. Can you just tell us straight out when Satan was bound?

932 posted on 11/13/2007 2:33:11 PM PST by Uncle Chip (TRUTH : Ignore it. Deride it. Allegorize it. Interpret it. But you can't ESCAPE it.)
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To: Uncle Chip; topcat54
Clearly, when Christ was present on earth, Satan could do nothing against Him and His disciples.

When He left however, Christ told them that things were going to be different.

But said unto them, but now he that hath a purse let him take it, and likewise his scrip; and he that hath no sword, let him sell his garment, and buy one.(Lk.22:36)

So, Satan isn't bound today, he is he god of this world, who still deceives it.

937 posted on 11/13/2007 2:49:28 PM PST by fortheDeclaration (We must beat the Democrats or the country will be ruined! - Lincoln)
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