[fortheDeclaration]

No one has tried to explain this little factoid: So Jesus uses the phrase "abomination of desolation" (which comes from Daniel) to give His hearers a sense of the sort of destruction that was about to fall upon Jerusalem and the temple. Remember, He wants to impress the Jewish Christians that they need to flee at the first sign of the "abomination of desolation". If they waited until ensigns were actually set up in the temple or pigs sacrificed (as dispensationalists suppose) it would have been too late for the believers to flee. Do the dispensationalists have an answer?

yes, we have an answer for it-it is wrong.

Christians did not flee at the arrival of the armies, but when they withdrew for a time

Moreover, Matthew isn't speaking to Jewish Christians, it is speaking to Jews, since the book of Matthew is a book directed to the Jew (note the genealogy back to Abraham), while Luke is a book for Gentiles, going back to Adam.

[topcat54]

Moreover, Matthew isn't speaking to Jewish Christians, it is speaking to Jews, since the book of Matthew is a book directed to the Jew (note the genealogy back to Abraham), while Luke is a book for Gentiles, going back to Adam.

A dispensational presupposition not supported by anything actually in the Bible.

[tabsternager]

“Christians did not flee at the arrival of the armies, but when they withdrew for a time.”

For a short time, just long enough to get out, which was why Jesus told them to flee to the mountains, not into the city. And why He also told them:

Matt. 24:17-18 “Let no one on the roof of his house go down to take anything out of the house. Let no one in the field go back to get his cloak.”

BTW, notice that that’s in MATTHEW.

[topcat54]

yes, we have an answer for it-it is wrong.

That's not an answer. It's an assertion, and a wrong one to boot.