[topcat54]

Now, where else in scripture does Christ ever use 'hyperbolic' language as you claim this to be?

All over, since Christ is the Author of all Scripture. And you know it since you failed to answer in substance here.

Here’s one example: "And I will do among you what I have never done, and the like of which I will never do again, because of all your abominations" (Ezek. 5:9). This describes the judgment at the hands of ancient Babylon. Was that Jesus speaking, or no? Hyperbolic? Absolutely.

[fortheDeclaration]

[Now, where else in scripture does Christ ever use 'hyperbolic' language as you claim this to be?]

All over, since Christ is the Author of all Scripture. And you know it since you failed to answer in substance here. Here’s one example: "And I will do among you what I have never done, and the like of which I will never do again, because of all your abominations" (Ezek. 5:9). This describes the judgment at the hands of ancient Babylon. Was that Jesus speaking, or no? Hyperbolic? Absolutely.

I was asking you for a passage where Christ, in the Gospels used hyperbolic language, not a passage from one of the prophets.

Clearly, you have none to offer from the Gospels, so your attempts to have Christ speaking in that manner in Matthew 24 are not consistent with His normal manner of speaking.