[fortheDeclaration]

You seem to have a very wooden understanding of the phrase "abomination of desolation" as used by Jesus. Jesus was using the phrase in much the same way was we would use a phrase like "Potemkin village". It conjures up a concept in the mind of the hearers based on historical facts. It can be applied to a modern situation for effect. E.g., "The CFO of the bank constructed a Potemkin village in order to hide his embezzlement." No one would read that sentence and think the CFO had anything to do with Catherine the Great. So Jesus uses the phrase "abomination of desolation" (which comes from Daniel) to give His hearers a sense of the sort of destruction that was about to fall upon Jerusalem and the temple. Remember, He wants to impress the Jewish Christians that they need to flee at the first sign of the "abomination of desolation". If they waited until ensigns were actually set up in the temple or pigs sacrificed (as dispensationalists suppose) it would have been too late for the believers to flee. Making any sense yet?

Christ used the word in the sense that Daniel used it in, that is why He makes a reference to him.

15When ye therefore shall see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel the prophet, stand in the holy place, (whoso readeth, let him understand:)

[topcat54]

Christ used the word in the sense that Daniel used it in, that is why He makes a reference to him.

I can agree with that, it's just that I do not agree Chipper understands what that "sense" is.

Saying that I agree with the sense is not the same as saying the two things are intended to identity the identical event or thing.

The sense in which Christ used the words is as I described it with the "Potemkin village" analogy.

The first century Jewish Christians certainly understood "the sense" since they did indeed flee to the mountains when the saw the abomination unfolding before their eyes.