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To: fortheDeclaration

I said “my understanding” because I don’t personally know Greek. I was being honest.

Look up “ge,” google it, and see what the definition is for yourself. You will see that it means “land, country, or earth.”

Again, I’m afraid you still have not looked at Zechariah either or what Jesus said to Caiaphas.

You cannot interpret Scripture in a way that renders it in conflict with what is so clear in other Scripture. Unfortunately, the dispensational interpretation does just that.


1,794 posted on 11/27/2007 4:54:59 AM PST by tabsternager
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To: tabsternager
I said “my understanding” because I don’t personally know Greek. I was being honest. Look up “ge,” google it, and see what the definition is for yourself. You will see that it means “land, country, or earth.” Again, I’m afraid you still have not looked at Zechariah either or what Jesus said to Caiaphas. You cannot interpret Scripture in a way that renders it in conflict with what is so clear in other Scripture. Unfortunately, the dispensational interpretation does just that.

First, even though the word can mean land in the Greek, no translation has 'land' they all have earth.

So, you are making your own private interpretation.

Second, all of the verses have either tribes, or nations etc in the plural showing that it is not referring to Israel alone.

Third, Zech.12:10 also refers to all of the nations being present when Christ returns, so it is you that is not reading Zach. and that upon that return Israel repents, which did not happen in 70AD.

As for Caliphas, he asked Christ if He was the Christ, the Son of God, and Christ answered him by saying that they (ye) would, one, see Him sitting on the right hand of power and two, returning in clouds of heaven.

Caliphas and those unbelieving Jewish leaders would see Christ at the right hand of power at the Great White Throne judgment seat (Rev.20). They are in hell right now waiting for that day.

And the Jewish people would see Him return in clouds of heaven, just as He told the Apostles in Acts 1 and occurs in Zach.12:10.

Neither of which has happened yet.

So, it is you who is ignoring what the scriptures actually say, in any translation to make them fit into your own false theological system.

Comparing scripture with scripture means actually seeing what they say-Christ is seen by all the tribes of the earth, and they weep (Rev.1:7) which didn't happen in 70AD, and that the Jews would see Christ whom they pierced and then repent, and mourn also, which again didn't happen in 70AD.

It has to happen-but will.

1,796 posted on 11/27/2007 5:27:39 AM PST by fortheDeclaration (We must beat the Democrats or the country will be ruined! - Lincoln)
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To: tabsternager
Look up “ge,” google it, and see what the definition is for yourself. You will see that it means “land, country, or earth.”

Bauer, Arndt, Gingrich (which is close to hand) lists 1)soil 2) ground, 3)the bottom of the sea, 4)land (in a territorial sense), 5)earth (in contrast to heaven) and 6)earth (the inhabited globe). With scriptural and classical references for each usage.

So, probably not wise to be insisting on a particular meaning.

1,798 posted on 11/27/2007 5:45:33 AM PST by Lee N. Field ("Is not the day of the LORD darkness, and not light, and gloom with no brightness in it?")
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