[topcat54]

but only that within that period of time, God works different ways.

Different, how? Do you mean people are saved differently? What is the real significance of this alleged "difference" that we would need to mark it off as different times? Unless you can say categorically what is different there is no way you can say how many of these things there really are. You need to avoid being arbitrary. That is the real objection to the dispensational system.

I’ve already said there are but two "dispensations" (as it is historically used) during this present covenant of grace, what we call the Old Testament and the New Testament.

[fortheDeclaration]

[but only that within that period of time, God works different ways.]

Different, how? Do you mean people are saved differently? What is the real significance of this alleged "difference" that we would need to mark it off as different times? Unless you can say categorically what is different there is no way you can say how many of these things there really are. You need to avoid being arbitrary. That is the real objection to the dispensational system. I’ve already said there are but two "dispensations" (as it is historically used) during this present covenant of grace, what we call the Old Testament and the New Testament.

So, you are at least a 'moderate' dispensationist

So, what we are really discussing is the differing views on dispensationalism, not its existance.

[fortheDeclaration]

Different, how? Do you mean people are saved differently? What is the real significance of this alleged "difference" that we would need to mark it off as different times?

The real difference for a classical dispensationist is the difference between church age believers, Christians,(Jews and Gentiles forming one body) and saved Jews and Gentiles after the Rapture, and their future promises.